AST CST
Practice Test
880+ AST CST practice questions with explanations. Study modes, progress tracking, works offline.
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30 free AST CST questions
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AST CST
Which of the following is NOT one of the standards of clinical nursing practice directly related to the nursing process?
Correct — D. The standards of Clinical Nursing Practice are directly related to the nursing process. They include: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. These clinical standards use the steps of the nursing process to help achieve the ANA standards of professional performance. -
AST CST
What is required for the insertion of a central venous pressure (CVP) catheter?
Correct — A. To successfully insert a central venous pressure (CVP) catheter, a sterile setup is necessary. This is essential to prevent the introduction of any harmful bacteria or other contaminants into the patient's bloodstream. A sterile setup includes the use of sterile gloves, sterile drapes, sterile catheter insertion kit, and ensuring that all equipment and surfaces are properly sterilized.<br/><br/>Option B) A crash cart is incorrect. A crash cart is used in emergency situations to store medications, equipment, and supplies used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). It is not directly related to the insertion of a CVP catheter.<br/><br/>Option C) An IV technician is incorrect. While it may be helpful to have an experienced IV technician present during the procedure, it is not a necessary step for a successful CVP catheter insertion. The responsibility of ensuring a sterile setup and proper insertion technique lies with the healthcare provider performing the procedure.<br/><br/>Option D) None of the above is incorrect. A sterile setup is required for a successful CVP catheter insertion, making option D an incorrect answer.<br/><br/>In summary, a successful CVP catheter insertion necessitates a sterile setup to minimize the risk of infection and ensure patient safety. -
AST CST
Geriatric patients are particularly susceptible to the following conditions, with the exception of:
Correct — D. Geriatric patients are particularly susceptible to various health conditions, but gallbladder disease is not typically one of them. As individuals age, their risk for certain conditions increases, so it is important to be aware of these vulnerabilities. However, gallbladder disease is not commonly associated with aging. <br/><br/>Option A (Infection) As individuals age, their immune system may weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Infections can range from respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, to skin infections. It is crucial to monitor and treat infections promptly in geriatric patients to prevent complications.<br/><br/>Option B (Poor wound healing) Geriatric patients often have slower healing rates for wounds, whether it be surgical wounds, pressure ulcers, or simple cuts. The aging process affects the body's ability to repair and regenerate tissues, leading to delayed healing. Effective wound care is important to ensure proper healing and minimize the risk of infection.<br/><br/>Option C (Cardiovascular problems) Geriatric patients commonly experience cardiovascular problems such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and stroke. The aging process, along with factors such as lifestyle choices and genetics, contribute to the increased susceptibility to these conditions. Regular monitoring, lifestyle modifications, and appropriate medical interventions are necessary to manage cardiovascular health in older individuals.<br/><br/>It is important to understand the unique health challenges faced by geriatric patients in order to provide appropriate care and prevent further complications. While gallbladder disease is not a condition typically associated with geriatric patients, healthcare professionals should remain vigilant and address any health concerns promptly. -
AST CST
Which statement best describes the active surgical hand scrub procedure?
Correct — A. An active surgical hand scrub is a critical step in maintaining a sterile environment during surgery. It involves thoroughly cleaning the hands and forearms to eliminate any microorganisms that may be present.<br/><br/>Option A (Time, no anatomical sequence) is incorrect because it does not consider the importance of following a specific anatomical sequence during the scrub. The hand to elbow sequence ensures that all areas are properly cleaned, reducing the risk of contamination.<br/><br/>Option B (Number of strokes, no anatomical sequence) is also incorrect because it neglects the necessary anatomical sequence. Simply counting the number of strokes without following a specific pattern may result in missed areas or inadequate cleaning.<br/><br/>Option D (Number of strokes, elbow to hand sequence) is incorrect because it reverses the anatomical sequence. Starting from the elbow and moving towards the hand can lead to cross-contamination from areas that are already cleaned to areas that are still dirty.<br/><br/>The correct answer, C) Time or number of strokes, hand to elbow sequence, encapsulates the essential elements of an active surgical hand scrub. This ensures that each part of the hand and forearm is adequately cleaned through a systematic process, reducing the risk of surgical site infections. -
AST CST
When is the flash sterilizer typically used?
Correct — C. These sterilizers are typically located just outside the operating suite.<br/><br/>They are typically used only when there is no other alternative.<br/><br/>Unwrapped items coming from the immediate-use sterilizers will be wet because there is no drying cycle for unwrapped items.<br/><br/>The term flash sterilizer has been replaced with the term immediate-use sterilizer. -
AST CST
Which stapler would be utilized for a laparoscopic procedure?
Correct — D. The endo GIA stapler is the only stapler that can be used endoscopically. -
AST CST
Which of the following items is classified as a category I-Critical surgical item?
Correct — C. Internal defibrillator paddles are classified as a category I- Critical surgical item. These paddles are used during surgical procedures to deliver electric shocks to the heart in order to correct abnormal heart rhythms. They are considered critical because their proper functioning is crucial for the success of the surgical procedure and the patient's well-being.<br/><br/>Option A (ECG electrodes) ECG electrodes are devices used to record the electrical activity of the heart. Although they are important for monitoring heart function, they are not classified as category I- Critical surgical items. They are not directly involved in the surgical procedure and do not have a critical impact on patient outcomes.<br/><br/>Option B (Cystoscope) A cystoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the urethra and bladder. While it is a useful tool in urological procedures, it is not classified as a category I- Critical surgical item. Its failure or absence during surgery would not have a critical impact on patient outcomes.<br/><br/>Option D (Grounding pads) Grounding pads are adhesive pads placed on the patient's body to ensure proper electrical grounding during surgical procedures. While they play an important role in maintaining electrical safety, they are not classified as category I- Critical surgical items. Failure or absence of grounding pads may increase the risk of electrical injury but would not have a critical impact on patient outcomes.<br/><br/>In summary, the correct answer is C) Internal defibrillator paddles, as they are classified as a category I- Critical surgical item essential for the success and safety of surgical procedures involving the heart. -
AST CST
Several dietary and lifestyle factors can either increase or decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. All of the following factors can increase lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, EXCEPT:
Correct — C. Dietary and lifestyle factors can have an impact on the pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Some factors may increase LES pressure, while others may lower it. In this question, we are looking for the factor that does not increase LES pressure.<br/><br/>Option A) protein<br/>Protein is an essential nutrient that is found in foods such as meat, fish, poultry, dairy products, beans, and legumes. However, consuming protein-rich foods does not result in an increase in LES pressure. Protein is necessary for the growth and repair of tissues in the body and plays a role in various bodily functions, but it does not have a direct effect on LES pressure.<br/><br/>Option C) carbohydrates<br/>Carbohydrates are a major source of energy and are found in foods like bread, rice, pasta, fruits, and vegetables. Similar to protein, consuming carbohydrates does not increase LES pressure. Carbohydrates are broken down into sugars during digestion, but this does not have a direct impact on LES pressure.<br/><br/>Option D) nonfat milk<br/>Nonfat milk refers to milk that has had the fat content removed. While it is often recommended as a lower-fat alternative to whole milk, consuming nonfat milk does not increase LES pressure. However, it is important to note that milk, especially whole milk, can increase LES pressure in some individuals. -
AST CST
Which of the following is a common incision for gynecological surgeries?
Correct — D. A Pfannenstiel incision is a common incision for gynecological surgeries, including C-sections. Also known as a Kerr incision or a Pfannenstiel-Kerr, it allows access to the abdomen. -
AST CST
While administering blood products during a surgical procedure, the nurse immediately observes that the patient has developed a sudden fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit, exhibiting flushed skin and an elevated heart rate. <br/><br/>What should be the nurse's initial response?
Correct — B. When a patient develops a sudden fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during the administration of blood products, it could indicate a transfusion reaction. A transfusion reaction is a potentially serious complication that needs immediate attention. The nurse's initial response should be to stop the transfusion to prevent further complications. Additionally, notifying the physician is crucial to ensure appropriate medical intervention and management. Prompt action is necessary to protect the patient's well-being and prevent any potential harm.<br/><br/>Option A (Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask at 10L/min): While administering oxygen is an essential intervention in certain situations, such as respiratory distress or hypoxemia, it is not the appropriate initial response when a patient develops a sudden fever, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during a blood transfusion. Oxygen administration may not address the underlying cause of these symptoms and may delay appropriate action.<br/><br/>Option B (Call the Blood Bank to verify labeling of the blood products): While it is important to verify the labeling of blood products for patient safety, it is not the nurse's initial response in this scenario. The patient's acute symptoms indicate a more urgent need to stop the transfusion and notify the physician. Verifying the labeling can be done after ensuring the patient's immediate safety and well-being.<br/><br/>Option C (Check the patient’s chart to ensure the orders are correct): While it is crucial to ensure correct orders and chart documentation, it is not the nurse's initial response in this situation. The sudden onset of fever, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during a blood transfusion indicates a possible transfusion reaction. Stopping the transfusion and notifying the physician should be the initial response to address the patient's immediate needs.<br/><br/>In conclusion, the nurse's initial response when observing a sudden fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during a blood transfusion should be to stop the transfusion and notify the physician. This response prioritizes patient safety and prompt medical intervention. -
AST CST
A secondary video monitor is commonly known as:
Correct — D. A secondary video monitor is commonly known as a "slave". This term refers to a monitor that is connected to and controlled by a primary or main monitor. The main monitor typically handles the majority of the processing and control functions, while the secondary monitor displays the output. This setup is commonly used in multi-monitor configurations, where additional monitors are added to expand screen real estate and improve productivity.<br/><br/>Option A) MAC is incorrect. MAC stands for Media Access Control and is a term used in computer networking to refer to the unique identifier assigned to a network interface. It is not related to secondary video monitors.<br/><br/>Option B) SMA is incorrect. SMA stands for SubMiniature version A and is a type of coaxial connector used in radio frequency applications. It is not related to secondary video monitors.<br/><br/>Option C) CAM-2 is incorrect. CAM-2 is an abbreviation for Computer Aided Manufacturing version 2, which refers to a software system used in manufacturing processes. It is not related to secondary video monitors.<br/><br/>In conclusion, a secondary video monitor is commonly known as a "slave", and options A) MAC, B) SMA, and C) CAM-2 are not correct terms for describing a secondary video monitor. -
AST CST
A simple nephrectomy:
Correct — C. A simple nephrectomy may require long instrumentation. <br/><br/>Choices A and C are incorrect because a simple nephrectomy requires a later position with a subcostal flank incision. The ureter of the affected side will be ligated, making choice D incorrect. -
AST CST
Which of the following options serves as a buffer solution for carbon dioxide?
Correct — C. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that plays a crucial role in carrying oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues and transporting carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the lungs. It acts as a buffer solution for carbon dioxide by binding to it and helping to maintain the blood's pH within a normal range. This buffer system is important in maintaining homeostasis and preventing drastic changes in blood acidity.<br/><br/>Option A) phosphates<br/>Phosphates are not directly involved in buffering carbon dioxide. They do play a role in buffering acid-base imbalances in the body, but they are not specifically responsible for buffering carbon dioxide.<br/><br/>Option B) plasma proteins<br/>Plasma proteins, such as albumin, are involved in maintaining osmotic pressure, transporting substances, and contributing to the blood's viscosity. While they may play a role in buffering certain ions and maintaining overall pH balance, they are not specifically responsible for buffering carbon dioxide.<br/><br/>Option C) bicarbonate<br/>Bicarbonate is a key component of the carbon dioxide transport system in the blood. Carbon dioxide diffuses into red blood cells and is converted to bicarbonate ions, which are then transported back into the plasma. While bicarbonate helps regulate blood pH and maintain buffering capacity, it is not the primary buffer solution for carbon dioxide. Hemoglobin, as mentioned earlier, serves as the primary buffer solution for carbon dioxide in the blood. -
AST CST
Staphylococcus is typically spread through:
Correct — C. Staphylococcus is typically spread by the upper respiratory tract. This means that the bacteria can be passed from person to person through activities such as coughing, sneezing, or talking. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, tiny droplets containing the bacteria can be released into the air and then inhaled by others. It is also possible for the bacteria to spread by touching surfaces or objects that are contaminated with the bacteria and then touching the face or mouth. Therefore, it is important to practice good respiratory hygiene, such as covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus infections.<br/><br/>Option A) Sexual contact: Staphylococcus is not typically spread through sexual contact. While some sexually transmitted infections are caused by bacteria, Staphylococcus is not commonly transmitted in this way.<br/><br/>Option C) Urine: Staphylococcus is not typically spread through urine. It is mainly transmitted through respiratory droplets or contaminated surfaces.<br/><br/>Option D) Feces: Staphylococcus is not typically spread through feces. It is mainly transmitted through respiratory droplets or contaminated surfaces.<br/><br/>It is important to understand the modes of transmission for infectious diseases like Staphylococcus in order to prevent their spread and protect public health. -
AST CST
Which of the following would be considered correct for the interaction between the pathogenic microorganism, the environment, and the host?
Correct — C. The infectious disease process would be the interaction between the pathogenic microorganism, the environment, and the host. The infectious disease process consists of six stages. -
AST CST
An inanimate object that serves as a breeding ground for and spreads a disease is known as a:
Correct — D. A fomite refers to an inanimate object that can act as a carrier and spreader of a disease. It can include everyday objects such as doorknobs, tables, or electronic devices that can harbor infectious agents and transmit them to individuals who come in contact with them.<br/><br/>Option B) Vector<br/><br/>Vector is the wrong answer. A vector refers to an organism, typically an insect or animal, that can transmit a disease-causing pathogen from one host to another. Unlike fomites, vectors are living organisms that can actively carry and transmit diseases.<br/><br/>Option C) Carrier<br/><br/>Carrier is another wrong answer. While carriers can spread diseases, they are usually individuals who are infected with a pathogen but do not exhibit symptoms. They can unknowingly transmit the disease to others through various means, such as direct contact or through respiratory droplets. Carriers are not inanimate objects.<br/><br/>Option D) Arthropod<br/><br/>Arthropod is also an incorrect answer. Arthropods are a diverse group of animals, including insects, arachnids, and crustaceans. While some arthropods can serve as vectors for disease transmission, they are not the same as inanimate objects acting as fomites.<br/><br/>In conclusion, the correct answer to the question is A) Fomite, as it specifically refers to an inanimate object that can carry and spread a disease. -
AST CST
What are signs of cardiovascular toxicity to a local anesthetic?
Correct — D. Hypotension is a sign of cardiovascular toxicity to a local anesthetic. Local anesthetics can also cause cardiac depression and tachycardia. -
AST CST
Which of the following medications would be employed as a topical anesthetic prior to undergoing nasal surgery?
Correct — C. Cocaine is commonly applied as a topical anesthetic prior to nasal surgery. It is a powerful local anesthetic that acts by blocking the transmission of pain signals. It is particularly effective for procedures involving the nasal passages due to its ability to not only numb the area but also constrict blood vessels, reducing bleeding during surgery.<br/><br/>Option A (Numorphan) is incorrect. Numorphan is not commonly used as a topical anesthetic prior to nasal surgery. It is an opioid analgesic primarily used for the relief of moderate to severe pain.<br/><br/>Option B (Codeine) is also incorrect. Codeine is not typically used as a topical anesthetic prior to nasal surgery. It is an opioid medication primarily used for the treatment of pain, cough, and diarrhea.<br/><br/>Option D (Marcaine) is incorrect as well. Marcaine, also known as bupivacaine, is a local anesthetic that is commonly used for various surgical procedures. However, it is not commonly applied topically prior to nasal surgery.<br/><br/>In summary, while options A, B, and D are all medications that may have uses in certain medical contexts, none of them are commonly applied as a topical anesthetic prior to nasal surgery. The correct answer is C) Cocaine. -
AST CST
Glutaraldehyde is considered a:
Correct — C. Glutaraldehyde is a high-level disinfectant used to sterilize surgical instruments. -
AST CST
What are the primary organisms responsible for sepsis that can potentially result in septic shock?
Correct — D. Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body's response to an infection damages its own tissues and organs. Bacteria are the primary organisms responsible for causing sepsis, with gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria being the most common culprits.<br/><br/>Gram-negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae, have an outer membrane that can release toxins into the bloodstream, leading to systemic inflammation and potential sepsis. Gram-positive bacteria, like Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae, can also cause sepsis by releasing toxins or through invasion of the bloodstream.<br/><br/>Parasites, fungi, and viruses, on the other hand, are not the primary organisms responsible for sepsis. While they can cause infections and sometimes lead to systemic inflammatory responses, they are less commonly associated with septic shock compared to bacteria. -
AST CST
Where does the hepatic artery and vein enter the liver?
Correct — D. The hepatic artery and vein enter the liver through the Porta Hepatis, before dividing further into the right and left lobes of the liver.<br/><br/> The hepatic duct, cystic duct, and liver meet at the triangle of Calot (choice A).<br/><br/> Hartmann's pouch (choice B) is where stones accumulate in the gallbladder.<br/><br/> The ampulla of Vater (choice C) is where the pancreatic duct and bile duct enter the duodenum. -
AST CST
The vocal cords are situated in the:
Correct — A. The larynx, also known as the voice box, is where the vocal cords are situated. The vocal cords are two folds of mucous membrane that vibrate to produce sound when you speak or sing. The larynx is located in the throat and connects the pharynx (option A) to the trachea (option C).<br/><br/>Option A (Pharynx) is incorrect. The pharynx is the part of the throat that connects the mouth and nasal cavity to the esophagus and larynx. While it plays a role in the production of sound, it does not house the vocal cords.<br/><br/>Option C (Trachea) is incorrect. The trachea, commonly known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that connects the larynx to the bronchi (option D). The trachea allows air to pass in and out of the lungs, but it does not contain the vocal cords.<br/><br/>Option D (Bronchus) is incorrect. Bronchi are branching tubes that carry air from the trachea to the lungs. While they are involved in respiratory functions, they are not where the vocal cords are located.<br/><br/>In summary, the correct answer is B) Larynx, as it is the specific anatomical structure that houses the vocal cords. -
AST CST
When transporting a patient by stretcher to the operating room, it should be pushed how?
Correct — D. From the head of the stretcher<br/><br/>The stretcher is pushed from the head so that the patient’s feet go first.<br/><br/>The attendant at the head can better observe the patient for things such as vomiting or respiratory distress. -
AST CST
How long should an instrument set remain at 270° in a gravity displacement steam sterilization system?
Correct — A. An instrument should remain at 270 degrees in a gravity displacement steam sterilization system for 15 minutes. -
AST CST
Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement would deviate from acceptable practice?
Correct — A. This statement violates acceptable practice regarding the surgical scrub because nail polish is not recommended to be worn during the procedure, even if it has been freshly applied. Nail polish can harbor bacteria and is difficult to clean thoroughly, which can compromise the sterility of the surgical environment. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to avoid wearing nail polish during the surgical scrub.<br/><br/>Option A (Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip) is a correct statement regarding the surgical scrub. It is important for healthcare professionals to keep their fingernails short and not extend beyond the fingertips. Long fingernails can harbor bacteria and make proper hand hygiene difficult to achieve, increasing the risk of transmitting infections.<br/><br/>Option C (Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hangnail should not scrub) is a correct statement regarding the surgical scrub. Open wounds such as cuts, abrasions, or hangnails can serve as entry points for bacteria and increase the risk of contamination. It is essential for anyone with such conditions to refrain from participating in the surgical scrub to maintain a sterile environment.<br/><br/>Option D (A non-oil-based hand lotion may be used on the skin) is a correct statement regarding the surgical scrub. Non-oil-based hand lotions are allowed to hydrate and protect the skin during and after the procedure. However, it is important to note that oil-based lotions should be avoided as they can compromise the effectiveness of the surgical scrub and interfere with glove integrity.<br/><br/>In summary, option B is the correct answer because wearing nail polish, even if freshly applied, violates acceptable practice regarding the surgical scrub. -
AST CST
Care and maintenance of the microscope should involve each of the aspects mentioned below EXCEPT:
Correct — B. Care and maintenance of the microscope is crucial to ensure accurate and clear observations. However, it is important to note the exception among the given options.<br/><br/>Option A (Damp dust external surfaces with detergent-disinfectant before use) is a valid step in the care and maintenance of the microscope. External surfaces can accumulate dust and debris, which can affect the quality of observations. By damp dusting these surfaces with detergent-disinfectant, any contaminants can be removed, ensuring a clean and clear microscope.<br/><br/>Option C (Enclose in an antistatic plastic cover when not in use) is also a recommended practice. When the microscope is not in use, it should be protected from dust and other environmental factors. Enclosing it in an antistatic plastic cover helps in preventing dust from settling on the microscope, ensuring its cleanliness.<br/><br/>Option D (Clean casters before each use) is another important step in maintaining the microscope. Casters are the small wheels attached to the microscope, which allow for easy mobility. Cleaning these casters before each use ensures smooth movement and prevents any potential debris or obstruction from affecting the microscope's performance.<br/><br/>The exception among these options is Option B (Damn dust lenses with detergent-disinfectant before use). Damaging the lenses by using detergent-disinfectant can cause scratches or alter the clarity of the lenses, resulting in compromised observations. Instead, special lens cleaning solutions or lens cleaning paper should be used to gently clean the microscope lenses without causing any damage.<br/><br/>Therefore, the correct statement is that B) Damn dust lenses with detergent-disinfectant before use is the exception among the provided maintenance practices for the microscope. -
AST CST
Making false, injurious statements about another person in writing is known as which of the following?
Correct — A. Libel occurs when false or injurious statements are made about another in writing. This is one form of character defamation, with slander being the other. -
AST CST
Perioperative nurses should have effective communication skills, which depend on many factors.<br/><br/>The setting for communication and the attitude of the speaker and listener are just two factors that affect communication.<br/><br/>For instance, an ANXIOUS pre-operative patient may TEND to respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT for:
Correct — D. The emotional state of parties involved as well as the setting can have a profound effect on communication.<br/><br/>For instance, an anxious, pre-op patient may TEND to draw erroneous conclusions, not hear what is being said by the nurse, or misunderstand instructions.<br/><br/>Most likely the ANXIOUS will NOT use logic and problem solving to process information. -
AST CST
Nursing ethics are a type of ethics based on the criteria by which people make moral judgments. <br/><br/>This is known as which of the following types of ethics?
Correct — C. Nursing ethics are based on normative ethics. This is a branch of philosophical ethics that investigates the set of questions that arise when considering how one ought to act, morally speaking. -
AST CST
All sterile packages should:
Correct — C. All sterile packages should be intact and have an undamaged wrapper.<br/><br/>Not all packages will have an expiration date due to the change to event related sterility, so choice A is incorrect.<br/><br/>Items that come from the manufacturer sterile usually do not contain a sterile indicator, so choice B is incorrect as well.<br/><br/>Reprocessed items only have to be double wrapped, not triple wrapped (choice C).
AST CST sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
AST CST When transporting a patient by stretcher to the operating room, it should be pushed how?
A. From the side of the stretcher
B. From the foot of the stretcher
C. None of the above
D. From the head of the stretcher ✓
Correct — D. From the head of the stretcher<br/><br/>The stretcher is pushed from the head so that the patient’s feet go first.<br/><br/>The attendant at the head can better observe the patient for things such as vomiting or respiratory distress.
AST CST How long should an instrument set remain at 270° in a gravity displacement steam sterilization system?
A. 15 minutes ✓
B. 10 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 20 minutes
Correct — A. An instrument should remain at 270 degrees in a gravity displacement steam sterilization system for 15 minutes.
AST CST Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement would deviate from acceptable practice?
A. Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied ✓
B. Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hangnail should not scrub
C. A non-oil-based hand lotion may be used to the skin
D. Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip
Correct — A. This statement violates acceptable practice regarding the surgical scrub because nail polish is not recommended to be worn during the procedure, even if it has been freshly applied. Nail polish can harbor bacteria and is difficult to clean thoroughly, which can compromise the sterility of the surgical environment. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to avoid wearing nail polish during the surgical scrub.<br/><br/>Option A (Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip) is a correct statement regarding the surgical scrub. It is important for healthcare professionals to keep their fingernails short and not extend beyond the fingertips. Long fingernails can harbor bacteria and make proper hand hygiene difficult to achieve, increasing the risk of transmitting infections.<br/><br/>Option C (Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hangnail should not scrub) is a correct statement regarding the surgical scrub. Open wounds such as cuts, abrasions, or hangnails can serve as entry points for bacteria and increase the risk of contamination. It is essential for anyone with such conditions to refrain from participating in the surgical scrub to maintain a sterile environment.<br/><br/>Option D (A non-oil-based hand lotion may be used on the skin) is a correct statement regarding the surgical scrub. Non-oil-based hand lotions are allowed to hydrate and protect the skin during and after the procedure. However, it is important to note that oil-based lotions should be avoided as they can compromise the effectiveness of the surgical scrub and interfere with glove integrity.<br/><br/>In summary, option B is the correct answer because wearing nail polish, even if freshly applied, violates acceptable practice regarding the surgical scrub.
AST CST Care and maintenance of the microscope should involve each of the aspects mentioned below EXCEPT:
A. Enclose in an antistatic plastic cover when not in use
B. Damn dust lenses with detergent-disinfectant before use ✓
C. Damp dust external surfaces with detergent-disinfectant before use
D. Clean casters before each use
Correct — B. Care and maintenance of the microscope is crucial to ensure accurate and clear observations. However, it is important to note the exception among the given options.<br/><br/>Option A (Damp dust external surfaces with detergent-disinfectant before use) is a valid step in the care and maintenance of the microscope. External surfaces can accumulate dust and debris, which can affect the quality of observations. By damp dusting these surfaces with detergent-disinfectant, any contaminants can be removed, ensuring a clean and clear microscope.<br/><br/>Option C (Enclose in an antistatic plastic cover when not in use) is also a recommended practice. When the microscope is not in use, it should be protected from dust and other environmental factors. Enclosing it in an antistatic plastic cover helps in preventing dust from settling on the microscope, ensuring its cleanliness.<br/><br/>Option D (Clean casters before each use) is another important step in maintaining the microscope. Casters are the small wheels attached to the microscope, which allow for easy mobility. Cleaning these casters before each use ensures smooth movement and prevents any potential debris or obstruction from affecting the microscope's performance.<br/><br/>The exception among these options is Option B (Damn dust lenses with detergent-disinfectant before use). Damaging the lenses by using detergent-disinfectant can cause scratches or alter the clarity of the lenses, resulting in compromised observations. Instead, special lens cleaning solutions or lens cleaning paper should be used to gently clean the microscope lenses without causing any damage.<br/><br/>Therefore, the correct statement is that B) Damn dust lenses with detergent-disinfectant before use is the exception among the provided maintenance practices for the microscope.
AST CST Making false, injurious statements about another person in writing is known as which of the following?
A. Libel. ✓
B. Slander.
C. Assault.
D. Verbal battery.
Correct — A. Libel occurs when false or injurious statements are made about another in writing. This is one form of character defamation, with slander being the other.
AST CST Perioperative nurses should have effective communication skills, which depend on many factors.<br/><br/>The setting for communication and the attitude of the speaker and listener are just two factors that affect communication.<br/><br/>For instance, an ANXIOUS pre-operative patient may TEND to respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT for:
A. Misunderstand instructions.
B. Not hear what is being said by the nurse.
C. Draw erroneous conclusions.
D. Use logic and problem solving to process information. ✓
Correct — D. The emotional state of parties involved as well as the setting can have a profound effect on communication.<br/><br/>For instance, an anxious, pre-op patient may TEND to draw erroneous conclusions, not hear what is being said by the nurse, or misunderstand instructions.<br/><br/>Most likely the ANXIOUS will NOT use logic and problem solving to process information.
AST CST Nursing ethics are a type of ethics based on the criteria by which people make moral judgments. <br/><br/>This is known as which of the following types of ethics?
A. theoretical ethics
B. meta-ethics
C. normative ethics ✓
D. durable ethics
Correct — C. Nursing ethics are based on normative ethics. This is a branch of philosophical ethics that investigates the set of questions that arise when considering how one ought to act, morally speaking.
AST CST All sterile packages should:
A. Be triple wrapped
B. Have an expiration date
C. Have an intact, undamaged wrapper ✓
D. Have a sterile indicator
Correct — C. All sterile packages should be intact and have an undamaged wrapper.<br/><br/>Not all packages will have an expiration date due to the change to event related sterility, so choice A is incorrect.<br/><br/>Items that come from the manufacturer sterile usually do not contain a sterile indicator, so choice B is incorrect as well.<br/><br/>Reprocessed items only have to be double wrapped, not triple wrapped (choice C).
About the AST CST test
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Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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