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CCRN
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3496+ CCRN practice questions with explanations. Study modes, progress tracking, works offline.

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Premature termination of the curve, cardiac arrhythmias, and marked variation in pulmonary artery baseline temperature can all cause problems with thermodilution cardiac output measurement. What type of problem do these factors produce?
Correct — D. An irregular downslope of the cardiac output curve can result from cardiac arrhythmias, catheter tip movement, premature termination of the curve, right-to-left shunt, and marked variation in pulmonary artery baseline temperature.
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  1. CCRN

    Premature termination of the curve, cardiac arrhythmias, and marked variation in pulmonary artery baseline temperature can all cause problems with thermodilution cardiac output measurement. What type of problem do these factors produce?

    Correct — D. An irregular downslope of the cardiac output curve can result from cardiac arrhythmias, catheter tip movement, premature termination of the curve, right-to-left shunt, and marked variation in pulmonary artery baseline temperature.
  2. CCRN

    Which settings must be configured on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) to achieve optimal support?

    Correct — D. Optimal IABP support requires two waveforms: the ECG to trigger balloon inflation and the arterial pressure waveform to coordinate counterpulsation timing. Settings are typically 1:1 or 1:2; 1:3 is used only for weaning prior to removal due to increased thrombus risk. The balloon should not be stationary for more than 20 minutes while in place.
  3. CCRN

    A student nurse overhears a physician explain the cardiac conduction system to a patient. Where does the heart's electrical impulse originate?

    Correct — A. The electrical impulse originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node, the natural pacemaker of the heart, which coordinates normal sinus rhythm. The SA node is located near the opening of the superior vena cava in the right atrium.
  4. CCRN

    A patient on an ACE inhibitor for hypertension complains of general malaise, low energy, muscle weakness, and rapid, shallow breathing. This patient should be further evaluated for which condition?

    Correct — D. Hyperkalemia occurs when blood potassium levels are elevated. ACE inhibitors can impair potassium excretion and contribute to hyperkalemia, especially in the setting of renal insufficiency. The condition can be life-threatening.
  5. CCRN

    A neonatologist auscultates a defect in the mitral valve of a 28-hour-old infant. By what other name is the mitral valve also known?

    Correct — A. The mitral valve is also known as the left atrioventricular valve. It is a bicuspid valve consisting of two leaflets surrounded by the mitral valve annulus, located between the left atrium and left ventricle.
  6. CCRN

    Which of the following is a valid rating in the peripheral pulse assessment scale?

    Correct — C. The peripheral pulse rating scale uses the following grading: 0 = absent pulse, +1 = palpable but thready, +3 = full, and +4 = full and bounding.
  7. CCRN

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a three-phase clinical course?

    Correct — C. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rare neurological disorder with a characteristic three-phase course: a progressive phase of ascending weakness/paralysis, a plateau phase, and a recovery phase.
  8. CCRN

    Which of the following most accurately describes the composition of bile?

    Correct — D. Bile is a greenish fluid consisting of water, cholesterol, bile salts, and phospholipids. It plays a key role in the digestion and absorption of fats.
  9. CCRN

    What is the appropriate glucose treatment for an adult patient who is hypoglycemic?

    Correct — D. Adult hypoglycemic patients require 15-20 grams of glucose. Pediatric patients require 2 g/kg. Administering glucose unnecessarily can cause brain damage.
  10. CCRN

    A 3-year-old boy with hemophilia is prescribed prophylactic recombinant Factor VIII infusions three times per week. At what time of day should parents be advised to administer the infusions?

    Correct — C. Because Factor VIII has a short half-life, it should be given in the morning on scheduled days. Administering it later in the day may leave the child with inadequate factor coverage during peak activity periods when bleeding risk is highest.
  11. CCRN

    Which of the following is NOT a function of the large intestine?

    Correct — B. The large intestine absorbs excess water and electrolytes, stores food residues, and eliminates waste. It does not secrete hormones or digestive enzymes.
  12. CCRN

    How is bowel infarction best defined?

    Correct — C. Bowel infarction results from a critical reduction in blood flow through the major mesenteric vessels, leading to ischemia and death of bowel tissue.
  13. CCRN

    What condition does an elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level indicate?

    Correct — C. Elevated BNP levels indicate heart failure. BNP rises in the bloodstream as heart failure worsens. Levels above a certain threshold are consistent with severe heart failure and can help guide diagnosis and management.
  14. CCRN

    What is the primary treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

    Correct — A. Laser scatter (photocoagulation) treatment is the standard management for proliferative retinopathy, targeting abnormal blood vessels to preserve vision. Vitrectomy is used when there is significant vitreous hemorrhage. Tonometry is a diagnostic test for intraocular pressure, and fluorescein angiography is used to assess retinal blood flow and detect macular edema.
  15. CCRN

    Which of the following represents an appropriate guideline when performing a family needs assessment after a critically ill patient is admitted?

    Correct — C. All listed options are appropriate guidelines for an initial family needs assessment. This would be followed by a comprehensive assessment that includes open-ended communication and evaluation of the family's communication style, among other elements.
  16. CCRN

    A nurse reviews laboratory results for a pediatric patient with rheumatic fever. Which finding would be considered clinically insignificant?

    Correct — D. An elevated reticulocyte count is related to anemia and is not a specific indicator of rheumatic fever. A positive antistreptolysin titer reflects prior streptococcal infection; elevated C-reactive protein and ESR both indicate an active inflammatory process, which are expected findings in rheumatic fever.
  17. CCRN

    After completing diabetes self-management education, which of the following should NOT be omitted from the nurse's documentation to protect against liability?

    Correct — A. To protect against liability, the nurse must document what was taught, what was not taught, all written materials provided, the patient's understanding, and the patient's response to teaching. Omitting documentation of written materials provided is not an acceptable practice.
  18. CCRN

    Which of the following is the LEAST likely principle to be part of psychosocial care in the critical care environment?

    Correct — C. Discouraging family participation is contrary to sound psychosocial care in the critical care setting. Best practice supports actively encouraging family involvement, minimizing stressors, empowering patients to participate in decisions as appropriate, and striving for continuity of care providers.
  19. CCRN

    Since Baby David cannot speak, Nurse Ellen must identify physiological signs of pain. Which of the following are recognized signs?

    Correct — D. In a preverbal infant, physiological signs of pain include elevated heart rate, increased blood pressure, increased intracranial pressure, and diaphoresis. All of the listed signs are relevant indicators.
  20. CCRN

    A 37-year-old male being treated for shock from acute pancreatitis reports numbness and tingling around his fingers and mouth. The nurse notes tremoring of the wrists and feet, and inflation of the blood pressure cuff produces carpopedal spasm. What condition do these findings indicate?

    Correct — C. Paresthesia, tremors, and carpopedal spasm with cuff inflation (Trousseau's sign) are consistent with tetany resulting from critically low serum calcium. Patients with acute pancreatitis are prone to hypocalcemia due to electrolyte disturbances from impaired pancreatic function.
  21. CCRN

    A parent asks the Pediatric CCRN about varicella-zoster immune globulin. What is the most accurate statement to share?

    Correct — D. Varicella immune globulin, like all immune globulin preparations, provides temporary passive immunity. It is derived from pooled blood donations but has an excellent safety profile. It is not synthetic, is not from a single donor, and does not transmit varicella to the child.
  22. CCRN

    Which of the following does NOT impair the body's ability to dissipate heat?

    Correct — D. A heart attack does not impair heat dissipation. The body's ability to release excess heat can be hindered by dehydration, excess clothing, and high ambient temperatures or humidity.
  23. CCRN

    Which of the following is a recognized contributing factor to hypothermia?

    Correct — A. Excessive alcohol intake impairs thermoregulation, increasing the risk of hypothermia.
  24. CCRN

    Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing neonatal urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

    Correct — D. UTIs in newborns are frequently accompanied by bacteremia and can result in long-term complications. Neonates with UTI should be evaluated for systemic infection and structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities. Escherichia coli is the most frequently implicated pathogen, accounting for up to 80% of neonatal UTIs. Klebsiella is the next most common, followed by Enterobacter and Citrobacter.
  25. CCRN

    Which of the following represents the body's primary (first line) defense against infection?

    Correct — D. The skin serves as the first line of defense against pathogens by providing a physical barrier. The second line of defense includes the inflammatory response, complement activation, and phagocytosis.
  26. CCRN

    On a standard chest X-ray, which structure appears black?

    Correct — C. The lungs are filled primarily with air and therefore appear black on chest X-ray. The skeletal thorax appears white, and the heart and mediastinum appear gray.
  27. CCRN

    A nurse is reviewing the history of a 4-week-old infant diagnosed with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). Which historical finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

    Correct — A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is an iatrogenic lung disease associated with positive-pressure mechanical ventilation used to treat lung disease in premature or critically ill newborns.
  28. CCRN

    In most respiratory disorders, which statement best describes physical activity?

    Correct — C. Patients with respiratory disorders are often easily fatigued. Physical activity must be planned carefully to conserve energy for the work of breathing and effective coughing, which are critical priorities in these patients.
  29. CCRN

    A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a newborn diagnosed with spina bifida (meningomyelocele). Which assessment action best identifies the most significant symptom of this condition?

    Correct — C. Newborns with meningomyelocele lack innervation below the level of the sac, which contains the meninges and spinal cord. They typically show diminished or absent pain responses in areas below the lesion.
  30. CCRN

    Which of the following correctly describes myxedema coma?

    Correct — B. Myxedema coma is a life-threatening condition that develops when thyroid hormone levels are severely depleted or completely absent, leading to a profound slowing of metabolic processes.
Sample questions

CCRN sample questions

Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.

CCRN Which of the following is a recognized contributing factor to hypothermia?

A. Excessive alcohol consumption ✓

B. Excessive caloric intake

C. Excessive dietary fat intake

D. Excessive water consumption

Correct — A. Excessive alcohol intake impairs thermoregulation, increasing the risk of hypothermia.

CCRN Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing neonatal urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A. Citrobacter

B. Klebsiella

C. Enterobacter

D. Escherichia coli ✓

Correct — D. UTIs in newborns are frequently accompanied by bacteremia and can result in long-term complications. Neonates with UTI should be evaluated for systemic infection and structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities. Escherichia coli is the most frequently implicated pathogen, accounting for up to 80% of neonatal UTIs. Klebsiella is the next most common, followed by Enterobacter and Citrobacter.

CCRN Which of the following represents the body's primary (first line) defense against infection?

A. None of the above

B. Inflammatory response

C. Fat

D. Skin ✓

Correct — D. The skin serves as the first line of defense against pathogens by providing a physical barrier. The second line of defense includes the inflammatory response, complement activation, and phagocytosis.

CCRN On a standard chest X-ray, which structure appears black?

A. Heart

B. Mediastinum

C. Lungs ✓

D. Skeletal thorax

Correct — C. The lungs are filled primarily with air and therefore appear black on chest X-ray. The skeletal thorax appears white, and the heart and mediastinum appear gray.

CCRN A nurse is reviewing the history of a 4-week-old infant diagnosed with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). Which historical finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

A. Prior mechanical ventilation ✓

B. Prior phototherapy

C. Meconium aspiration at delivery

D. Growth retardation

Correct — A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is an iatrogenic lung disease associated with positive-pressure mechanical ventilation used to treat lung disease in premature or critically ill newborns.

CCRN In most respiratory disorders, which statement best describes physical activity?

A. It needs to be completely avoided.

B. There are no activity restrictions.

C. It needs to be carefully planned. ✓

D. It should be entirely spontaneous.

Correct — C. Patients with respiratory disorders are often easily fatigued. Physical activity must be planned carefully to conserve energy for the work of breathing and effective coughing, which are critical priorities in these patients.

CCRN A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a newborn diagnosed with spina bifida (meningomyelocele). Which assessment action best identifies the most significant symptom of this condition?

A. Assessing capillary refill in the nailbeds of the upper extremities

B. Palpating the abdomen for masses

C. Checking for responses to painful stimuli from the torso downward ✓

D. Testing the urine for blood

Correct — C. Newborns with meningomyelocele lack innervation below the level of the sac, which contains the meninges and spinal cord. They typically show diminished or absent pain responses in areas below the lesion.

CCRN Which of the following correctly describes myxedema coma?

A. It is caused by discontinuation of thyroid medications

B. It results from severe deficiency or complete absence of thyroid hormones ✓

C. It results from overproduction of thyroid hormones

D. It is caused by an overdose of thyroid medications

Correct — B. Myxedema coma is a life-threatening condition that develops when thyroid hormone levels are severely depleted or completely absent, leading to a profound slowing of metabolic processes.

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About the CCRN test

CCRN Exam Prep 2026 helps you pass with 3496+ realistic practice questions, each with a clear explanation.

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You will be tested on

  • Safe and effective care environment
  • Health promotion and maintenance
  • Psychosocial and physiological integrity
  • Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety

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Topic

Safe and effective care environment

Topic

Health promotion and maintenance

Topic

Psychosocial and physiological integrity

Topic

Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety

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CCRN test FAQ

Is the CCRN hard?
The CCRN is very passable when you study with realistic practice questions. Most people only find it tricky because the wording is unfamiliar. Practise in the real question format until you score consistently above the pass mark and you'll walk in confident.
How many questions are on the CCRN?
The exact number depends on the version of the CCRN you sit. CCRN Exam Prep 2026 Test includes a large bank of practice questions covering every topic, plus full-length mock exams set up to mirror the real test format and pass mark.
Can I practise the CCRN for free?
Yes. You can practise a free sample of CCRN questions on TheoryPractice in your browser, with answers and explanations. A web unlock adds the full question bank and unlimited timed mock exams for this exam.
Does CCRN Exam Prep 2026 Test work offline?
The web practice works in your browser. If you prefer offline study, use the downloadable PDF or the mobile app where available, then return to the web version for timed mock exams and progress tracking.
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How many CCRN questions are there?
This bank covers 30 CCRN practice questions, each with a plain-English explanation for the correct answer.
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Yes — the sample questions on this page are free to practice. Unlock the full bank and timed mock exams when you're ready to go further.
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