TheoryFNP
Practice Test
1054+ FNP practice questions with explanations. Study modes, progress tracking, works offline.
Heads up: the app and the web exam use separate accounts — a web unlock and an in-app purchase do not carry over. Buy on the web to practice on the web.
30 free FNP questions
Sampled across every topic area — not just the first page. Try them as a quiz or flip them as flashcards.
-
FNP
Your 20-year-old female patient presents with allergic rhinitis symptoms. She reports taking oral antihistamines intermittently but has found them ineffective. She complains of nasal congestion and rhinorrhea almost daily, stating her symptoms are worse in the Spring.<br/><br/>What do you recommend?
Correct — D. The correct answer is C) Fluticasone nasal spray daily.<br/><br/> An intranasal corticosteroid (ICS), such as fluticasone, is the most effective treatment for allergic rhinitis and is the first-line treatment for patients with persistent symptoms (i.e., ≥4 days per week and ≥4 consecutive weeks per year).<strong> </strong><br/><br/><strong>Choice A is incorrect.</strong> Oral antihistamines, such as cetirizine, are recommended for patients with intermittent symptoms or persistent symptoms that are not controlled with an ICS.<br/><br/><strong>Choice B is incorrect.</strong> Antihistamine nasal sprays, such as azelastine, are recommended for patients with intermittent symptoms or whose persistent symptoms are not controlled with an ICS.<br/><br/><strong>Choice D is incorrect.</strong> Intranasal cromolyn may be recommended for use prior to known allergen exposure. For ongoing symptoms, it must be used 3-4 times per day for 1-2 weeks to achieve maximum effect. Cromolyn is not as effective as other medications. -
FNP
Select the option that includes an example of secondary prevention for elderly individuals.
Correct — D. The correct answer is A) Screening lab work.<br/><br/>Lab work is an example of secondary prevention because it detects disease for those at risk. -
FNP
A patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) receives a 6 mg dose of adenosine after failure on Verapamil.<br/><br/>What EKG change does the cardiovascular nurse anticipate may occur with this medication?
Correct — C. The correct answer is A) Transient Asystole.<br/><br/>Transient Asystole is expected with the administration of Adenosine. Transient asystole is safe and effective in SVT when administered at an average of 0.3-0.4 mg/kg.<br/><br/><strong>Choice B is incorrect. </strong>Adenosine does not produce an atrial fibrillation response.<br/><br/><strong>Choice C is incorrect. </strong>Adenosine does not produce an atrial flutter response.<br/><br/><strong>Choice D is incorrect. </strong>Torsades de Pointes is a specific type of ventricular tachycardia. People who have a long QT interval, certain medications, and genetic abnormalities can cause Torsades de Pointes. Magnesium, beta blockers, and Isoproterenol are used to treat this cardiac arrhythmia. -
FNP
The 2015 FDA Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) accomplished which of the following?
Correct — D. The correct answer is B) Removed the FDA pregnancy categories applied to medications.<br/><br/> The 1979 system of pregnancy categories (A, B, C, D, X) was replaced with the PLLR. Pregnancy categories were too simple and were often misinterpreted. The PLLR provides the relevant drug information to allow for informed clinical decision-making.<br/><br/><strong>Choice A is incorrect. </strong>The PLLR does not apply to OTC medication labels. It only applies to prescription drugs and biological products, which are required to be labeled with pregnancy-risk categories.<br/><br/><strong>Choice C is incorrect. </strong>The PLLR replaced the old FDA pregnancy categories with pregnancy-risk categories and subsets of information required under each of the 3 categories: pregnancy (includes through delivery), lactation, and females/males of reproductive potential. The PLLR does not apply to labeling of supplements or OTC products, which is important for patients to understand.<br/><br/><strong>Choice D is incorrect. </strong>The pregnancy subsection established a pregnancy exposure registry that collects data on pregnant women and provides information on risks, clinical considerations, and data. The lactation subsection provides information on risks, clinical considerations, and data. The females and males of the reproductive potential subsection provide information on pregnancy testing, contraception, and infertility. -
FNP
The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) was passed by the U.S. Congress in 1990.<br/><br/>Which of the following policy changes did it result in?
Correct — A. The correct answer is A) Federally funded managed care organizations (MCOs) are required to inform subscribers about their rights under state law to create "advance directives."<br/><br/>MCOs are one group of healthcare organizations that are impacted by this law. Now, all subscribers must be provided with the stated information at the time of enrollment. Advance directive documents are never mandatory. -
FNP
Select the option that includes an example of tertiary prevention for elderly individuals.
Correct — C. The correct answer is D) Rehabilitation programs.<br/><br/>Rehabilitation programs (cardiac or stroke) are examples of tertiary prevention. -
FNP
A 1-month-old female presents to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. The infant was recently diagnosed with spina bifida at birth. During physical assessment, the nurse practitioner measures the infant’s head circumference to assess for:
Correct — C. The correct answer is C) Hydrocephalus.<br/><br/>Spina bifida is a midline neural tube defect where the osseous spine fails to close. Spina bifida is categorized by spina bifida occulta and spina bifida cystica. Spina bifida occulta is when the spinal defect is not externally visible. Spina bifida cystica is when the spinal defect forms an external saclike protrusion<strong>.</strong> Children with minor defects of spina bifida are asymptomatic. However, neurological complications of spina bifida include hydrocephalus, differing degrees of paralysis and sensory deficits, and decreased rectal tone.<br/><br/><img src="asset:assets/questions/b7979320fde99b10.png"><br/><br/><strong><em>Spina bifida</em></strong><em> Image Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spina_bifida#/media/File:Spina-bifida.jpg</em><br/><br/>Hydrocephalus is an accumulation of excessive amounts of CSF in the ventricular system of the brain. It can cause cerebral ventricular enlargement and/or increased intracranial pressure. Head circumference is measured to check for the development of hydrocephalus. Cranial imaging such as CT scan, MRI, or ultrasound is used to further monitor the progression of hydrocephalus.<br/><br/><img src="asset:assets/questions/d7c38ac319bd64e5.png"><br/><br/><strong><em>Hydrocephalus </em></strong><em>Image Source: </em><a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrocephalus#/media/File:Hydrocephalus_CDC.png" style="color: rgb(5, 99, 193);"><em>https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrocephalus#/media/File:Hydrocephalus_CDC.png</em></a><br/><br/><strong>Choice A is incorrect.</strong> Microcephaly is defined as the head being disproportionately smaller compared to the rest of the body. Microcephaly is caused by chromosomal disorders and environmental causes such as prenatal alcohol, drug, or radiation exposure and prenatal infections.<br/><br/>Macrocephaly can be seen in hydrocephalus.<br/><br/><strong>Choice B is incorrect.</strong> Subdural hematoma is intracranial bleeding that occurs under the dura matter. In infants, subdural hematomas can occur due to falls, assaults, birth trauma, or violent shaking. Subdural hematomas develop slowly in a span of days or weeks after the injury.<br/><br/><strong>Choice C is incorrect. </strong>Spina bifida cystica<strong> </strong>is when the spinal defect forms an external saclike protrusion<strong>. </strong>Spina bifida cystica refers to two forms: myelomeningocele (can also be referred to as meningomyelocele) and meningocele. Myelomeningocele contains meninges, spinal fluid, and nerves. Meningocele contains meninges and spinal fluid.<br/><br/>Spina bifida occulta is when the spinal defect is not outwardly visible. It occurs more commonly in the lumbosacral area. Physical examination of spina bifida occulta includes asymmetry of the gluteal cleft, hyperpigmented areas, and tufts of hair at the site.<br/><br/><img src="asset:assets/questions/faa139783bf2916c.png"><br/><br/><strong><em>Forms of spina bifida </em></strong><em>Image Source: </em><em>https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spina_bifida#/media/File:Typesofspinabifida.jpg</em> -
FNP
A 12-year-old patient presents for a yearly examination. You decide to perform a Rinne test.<br/><br/>Which of the following cranial nerves does the Rinne test assess?
Correct — D. The correct answer is B) CN VIII.<br/><br/>CN VIII is the auditory nerve, which is responsible for hearing. The Rinne test, which evaluates conductive hearing loss, is performed by striking a tuning fork at 256 or 512 Hz and placing it on the mastoid process. A normal test will show that air conduction is twice the time of bone conduction. If conductive hearing loss is present, bone conduction will be longer than air conduction.<br/><br/><strong>Choice A is incorrect. </strong>CN VI innervates the abducens nerve which is responsible for the movement of the lateral rectus eye muscle.<br/><br/><strong>Choice C is incorrect. </strong>CN VII innervates the facial nerve which is responsible for facial expression and taste.<br/><br/><strong>Choice D is incorrect. </strong>CN V innervates the trigeminal nerve which is responsible for facial movement and touch sensation. -
FNP
The majority of breast cancers occur in which area of the breast?
Correct — C. The correct answer is B) Upper outer quadrant.<br/><br/>The upper outer quadrant is the most common site for breast cancer. The second most common site for breast cancer is beneath the nipple and areola. -
FNP
Which procedure is most helpful in screening for impotence?
Correct — D. The correct answer is A) Sexual history and physical examination.<br/><br/>It is important to take a thorough history of sexual activity and a psychiatric history of the patient before undergoing different and expensive laboratory tests.<br/><br/>By interviewing the patient’s wife or partner, you are narrowing down possible causes of the condition and determining whether the symptoms reported are just an exaggeration of the patient.<br/><br/>Physical examination is important to gather evidence of overt testicular atrophy or penile disease.<br/><br/>And the laboratory and diagnostic test would be used to form a definitive diagnosis. -
FNP
Susan is having surgery to her colon.<br/><br/>Which type of surgical wound will this surgery likely cause?
Correct — D. The correct answer is B) Class II.<br/><br/>Surgeries to the intestines is likely to cause a Class II surgical wound because the wounds are close to areas that increase the risk of infection such as the intestines and colon. -
FNP
Tolerance for a drug is a sign of what?
Correct — A. The correct answer is C) Substance dependency.<br/><br/>There are many symptoms of substance dependency, including developing a tolerance for the drug. -
FNP
Dry, red lesions with a rough texture that are a precursor for squamous cell carcinoma are which of the following?
Correct — D. The correct answer is D) Actinic keratoses.<br/><br/>Actinic keratoses are precursor lesions of squamous cell carcinoma. They are located in sun-exposed areas of skin and are diagnosed by skin biopsy and clinical appearance. -
FNP
Which type of surgical wound is considered clean-contaminated because there are no signs of contamination but the wound is in a location on the body that has an increased risk for getting infected?
Correct — D. The correct answer is B) Class II.<br/><br/>Class II surgical wounds are considered clean-contaminated because they are very clean but they have increased risk of infection because of their location, such as near the reproductive organs. -
FNP
When assessing the patient with unstable angina, the nurse practitioner knows that the causes include all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct — A. The correct answer is D) Ventricular hypertrophy.<br/><br/>Acute unstable angina, most often caused by atherosclerosis, results from an imbalance in the ability to supply the myocardium with sufficient oxygen to meet its metabolic demands.<br/><br/>Causes of unstable angina include vasoconstriction, nonocclusive thrombus and inflammation or infection. -
FNP
A woman who is in her sixth day after childbirth is reporting having a strong and unpleasant odor coming from her vaginal discharge, as well as a higher than usual body temperature. <br/><br/>What would be your approach in managing her?
Correct — D. The correct answer is D) All of the above.<br/><br/>Managing a woman who is experiencing a strong and unpleasant odor from her vaginal discharge, as well as a higher than usual body temperature after childbirth requires a comprehensive approach. All of the options provided in the correct answer are necessary for addressing the situation effectively. Include the following approaches: Isolating the patient to prevent the spread of infection; Ensuring adequate intake of fluids and calories to; Support the body's healing process; Correcting any anemic condition that may be present; Lowering the patient's temperature if it is elevated; Administering appropriate antibiotics to treat the infection; Using paracetamol as an antipyretic to reduce fever. -
FNP
Of the following, which antibiotic is typically used to treat the patient that has been diagnosed with Lyme disease?
Correct — A. The correct answer is D) Doxycycline.<br/><br/>Doxycycline would be considered the typical antibiotic that is used to treat the patient with Lyme disease. A normal dosage might be considered: 100 mg PO BID x 21 days. -
FNP
Which of the following scenarios reflects the greatest need for mechanical ventilation?
Correct — D. The correct answer is C) An alert and oriented patient who is slightly diaphoretic and is having difficulty breathing.<br/><br/>The scenario that reflects the greatest need for mechanical ventilation is the patient who is having difficulty breathing. Mechanical ventilation is appropriate when the patient’s ability to oxygenate and exchange carbon dioxide is impaired. -
FNP
Of the following, what is the target dosage for an adult patient on Norpramin (desipramine)?
Correct — B. The correct answer is D) 75 - 300 mg qd.<br/><br/>The following dosages are associated with:<br/>Elavil (amitriptyline): 50 - 150 mg divided; <br/>Norpramin (desipramine): 75 - 300 mg qd; <br/>Tofranil (imipramine): 75 - 300 mg q hs; <br/>Pamelor (nortriptyline): 75 - 150 mg qd or divided. -
FNP
You are treating a child with lead poisoning. As part of the education and follow-up for this family you would tell the parents which of the following?
Correct — D. The correct answer is A) Lead must be removed by a professional.<br/><br/>This is an accurate and appropriate statement. You should tell the parents to increase calcium and iron in the child’s diet and to consider buying a simple lead testing kit for paint and water that is available from most hardware stores. Most homes built before 1950 contain lead paint. -
FNP
The patient has reached a final decision to screen for lung cancer.<br/><br/>What next step should the nurse take?
Correct — B. The correct answer is D) Make sure the patient is fully informed and clear about his decision.<br/><br/>The last step in shared decision making is assessing how comfortable a patient is in his or her decision. This involves ensuring the patient is fully informed, explicitly understands his or her values, and feels sure the nurse will support his or her decision. -
FNP
Mara, a G1P0 female at 30 weeks gestation, presented with a blood pressure reading of 180/130 mm Hg during a physical examination. Further laboratory tests conducted revealed proteinuria of more than 5 grams in a 24-hour collection. Based on her medical history, Mara was diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. To prevent convulsions, the NP prescribed the administration of magnesium sulfate IV. <br/><br/>The NP in charge wants to make sure that which of the following medications is readily accessible as an antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Correct — C. The correct answer is B) Calcium gluconate.<br/><br/>Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent convulsions in patients with pre-eclampsia, but it can have toxic effects if given in excessive amounts. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to have an accessible antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.<br/><br/>Option A) Naloxone is used as an opioid antagonist to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.<br/><br/>Option C) Protamine sulfate is used as an antidote for heparin overdose. It is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.<br/><br/>Option D) Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.<br/><br/>In the context of this question, the correct antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate can be given intravenously to counteract the effects of magnesium sulfate and prevent further complications. It is readily accessible and commonly used in clinical settings for this purpose. -
FNP
A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with group A streptococcus (GAS) pharyngitis and is prescribed amoxicillin; his mother expresses concern regarding his sister, who is ten months old. She asks, “How will I know if she has it?“.<br/><br/>How do you respond?
Correct — C. The correct answer is B) “Observe your daughter for fussiness, poor-feeding, and a fever.”.<br/><br/>GAS infections present with non-specific signs such as fussiness, poor feeding, and fever in children less than one year of age.<br/><br/><strong>Choice A is incorrect. </strong>Empiric therapy for asymptomatic persons on the basis of exposure is not advised due to potential side effects and resistance concerns with antibiotic therapy.<br/><br/><strong>Choice C is incorrect. </strong>Symptom presentation of GAS infections in infants is NOT similar to the presentation in older children; symptoms in infants are non-specific and include fussiness, poor feeding, and fever.<br/><br/><strong>Choice D is incorrect. </strong>Vomiting and diarrhea are not typical symptoms of GAS infections in infants. -
FNP
You are seeing a 3-year-old female patient for a routine visit. The patient was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. His mother states, “I still don’t really understand how he got it, did it have something to do with me?”. How do you explain the origins of this diagnosis to the patient’s mother?
Correct — C. The correct answer is D) Cystic fibrosis is genetic. You and the child’s father are both carriers of the mutated gene that causes cystic fibrosis; your child would not otherwise have cystic fibrosis.<br/><br/> To have active cystic fibrosis, a person must inherit copies of the mutated CFTR gene from both parents.<br/><br/><strong>Choice A is incorrect. </strong>Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations of the CFTR gene; the child must inherit two copies of the mutated CFTR genes to manifest the disease. This is an example of a recessive disease.<br/><br/><strong>Choice B is incorrect. </strong>Cystic fibrosis is not caused by any in-utero factors; it is a genetic disease.<br/><br/><strong>Choice C is incorrect.</strong> Cystic fibrosis is a recessive disease. This means that to have a child with cystic fibrosis, both parents must either: 1) carry a copy of the mutated CFTR gene (25% chance of the child having cystic fibrosis or 2.) one parent must have cystic fibrosis and the other must be a carrier of the mutated CFTR gene. -
FNP
All of the following are symptoms that are consistent with Fifth disease EXCEPT:
Correct — C. The correct answer is C) Strawberry tongue.<br/><br/>Strawberry tongue is a symptom that is not consistent with Fifth’s disease which is a generally mild illness with few or no symptoms and a characteristic rash. Fifth disease is characterized by a bright red confluent rash which starts on the face. Symptoms may include a mild fever, headache, sore throat, and coryza. Strawberry tongue is associated with scarlet fever and Kawasaki Syndrome not Fifth’s disease. -
FNP
You have a female patient who has a fibroid that is located in the uterine endometrium.<br/><br/>You understand that is known as which of the following?
Correct — A. The correct answer is C) Submucosal fibroid.<br/><br/>Fibroids are described based on their location. They are classified as either subserous, intramural, or submucosal. A fibroid that is located in the uterine endometrium is a submucosal fibroid.<br/><br/>This type of fibroid is usually palpable only as an enlarged uterus. -
FNP
Your 78-year-old patient is experiencing worsening kidney function, evidenced by increased levels of serum Creatinine and decreased urine output.<br/><br/>Which symptom of liver failure does this seem to be indicative of?
Correct — A. The correct answer is D) Hepatorenal syndrome.<br/><br/>Hepatorenal syndrome is a condition that occurs as a result of liver failure and is characterized by worsening kidney function. In this case, the patient's increased levels of serum Creatinine and decreased urine output suggest kidney dysfunction, which is a common symptom of hepatorenal syndrome. This condition occurs when the liver is not able to properly filter toxins from the blood, leading to impaired kidney function.<br/><br/>Option A) Varices is an incorrect answer. Varices refers to the enlargement of blood vessels, typically in the esophagus or stomach, that can occur as a result of liver cirrhosis. While liver failure can contribute to the development of varices, it does not directly cause worsening kidney function.<br/><br/>Option B) Hepatic encephalopathy is also an incorrect answer. Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that occurs as a result of liver failure and is characterized by impaired brain function. Symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy can include confusion, personality changes, and difficulty with coordination. While liver failure can lead to various complications, such as hepatic encephalopathy, it does not directly cause worsening kidney function.<br/><br/>Option C) Jaundice is another incorrect answer. Jaundice is a yellowing of the skin and eyes that occurs as a result of liver dysfunction. It is caused by a buildup of bilirubin, a yellow pigment, in the body. While jaundice can indicate liver failure, it does not directly cause worsening kidney function.<br/><br/>In summary, the correct answer to the question is D) Hepatorenal syndrome. This condition is characterized by worsening kidney function, evidenced by increased levels of serum Creatinine and decreased urine output. The incorrect answers (A) Varices, (B) Hepatic encephalopathy, and (C) Jaundice are all symptoms or complications of liver failure, but they do not specifically indicate worsening kidney function. -
FNP
Your 69-year-old male patient complains of muscle weakness and myalgias. He is currently taking atorvastatin.<br/><br/>What adverse effect may he be experiencing?
Correct — C. The correct answer is C) Rhabdomyolysis.<br/><br/> Atorvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, also known as a statin. This class of medications carries a boxed warning regarding the risk for rhabdomyolysis. In this condition, muscle necrosis and the release of intracellular contents from muscle cells into the circulatory system may cause muscle weakness, myalgias, and dark urine. A markedly elevated serum creatine kinase level is a hallmark of rhabdomyolysis. Treatment with intravenous fluids reduces the likelihood of kidney injury.<strong> </strong><br/><br/><strong>Choice A is incorrect. </strong>Thrombocytosis is not a known adverse effect of statins and is often asymptomatic, although it may cause pain if thrombosis is present. However, thrombocytopenia is a potential adverse effect of these medications.<br/><br/><strong>Choice B is incorrect.</strong> Hypokalemia may cause muscle weakness, but it is not a known adverse effect of statins.<br/><br/><strong>Choice D is incorrect.</strong> Dermatomyositis may cause muscle weakness, but it is not a known adverse effect of statins. -
FNP
Which of the following would be a risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
Correct — C. The correct answer is D) Diabetes.<br/><br/>Diabetes is a risk factor for CTS. Metabolic disorders such as diabetes, trauma to the wrist, arthritis, cancer, or thyroid disease are other risk factors. -
FNP
A machine that controls breathing and forces extra oxygen into the lungs is called what?
Correct — C. The correct answer is A) Ventilator.<br/><br/>A ventilator can be used to regulate a patient's breathing. The machine takes over for the lungs and forces more oxygen into the body. A person on a ventilator usually needs to be sedated because of the unnatural feeling of a machine breathing for you.
FNP sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
Evaluation Your 20-year-old female patient presents with allergic rhinitis symptoms. She reports taking oral antihistamines intermittently but has found them ineffective. She complains of nasal congestion and rhinorrhea almost daily, stating her symptoms are worse in the Spring. What do you recommend?
A. Azelastine nasal spray daily
B. Cetirizine daily
C. Cromolyn nasal spray 4 times per day
D. Fluticasone nasal spray daily ✓
Correct — D. The correct answer is C) Fluticasone nasal spray daily. An intranasal corticosteroid (ICS), such as fluticasone, is the most effective treatment for allergic rhinitis and is the first-line treatment for patients with persistent symptoms (i.e., ≥4 days per week and ≥4 consecutive weeks per year). Choice A is incorrect. Oral antihistamines, such as cetirizine, are recommended for patients with intermittent symptoms or persistent symptoms that are not controlled with an ICS. Choice B is incorrect. Antihistamine nasal sprays, such as azelastine, are recommended for patients with intermittent symptoms or whose persistent symptoms are not controlled with an ICS. Choice D is incorrect. Intranasal cromolyn may be recommended for use prior to known allergen exposure. For ongoing symptoms, it must be used 3-4 times per day for 1-2 weeks to achieve maximum effect. Cromolyn is not as effective as other medications.
Plan A woman who is in her sixth day after childbirth is reporting having a strong and unpleasant odor coming from her vaginal discharge, as well as a higher than usual body temperature. What would be your approach in managing her?
A. Adequate fluid and calorie intake
B. Reduction of temperature
C. Antibiotic administration
D. All of the above ✓
Correct — D. The correct answer is D) All of the above. Managing a woman who is experiencing a strong and unpleasant odor from her vaginal discharge, as well as a higher than usual body temperature after childbirth requires a comprehensive approach. All of the options provided in the correct answer are necessary for addressing the situation effectively. Include the following approaches: Isolating the patient to prevent the spread of infection; Ensuring adequate intake of fluids and calories to; Support the body's healing process; Correcting any anemic condition that may be present; Lowering the patient's temperature if it is elevated; Administering appropriate antibiotics to treat the infection; Using paracetamol as an antipyretic to reduce fever.
Diagnosis Mara, a G1P0 female at 30 weeks gestation, presented with a blood pressure reading of 180/130 mm Hg during a physical examination. Further laboratory tests conducted revealed proteinuria of more than 5 grams in a 24-hour collection. Based on her medical history, Mara was diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. To prevent convulsions, the NP prescribed the administration of magnesium sulfate IV. The NP in charge wants to make sure that which of the following medications is readily accessible as an antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Calcium gluconate ✓
D. Acetylcysteine
Correct — C. The correct answer is B) Calcium gluconate. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent convulsions in patients with pre-eclampsia, but it can have toxic effects if given in excessive amounts. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to have an accessible antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Option A) Naloxone is used as an opioid antagonist to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Option C) Protamine sulfate is used as an antidote for heparin overdose. It is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Option D) Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. In the context of this question, the correct antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate can be given intravenously to counteract the effects of magnesium sulfate and prevent further complications. It is readily accessible and commonly used in clinical settings for this purpose.
Assessment A 12-year-old patient presents for a yearly examination. You decide to perform a Rinne test. Which of the following cranial nerves does the Rinne test assess?
A. CN VI
B. CN VII
C. CN V
D. CN VIII ✓
Correct — D. The correct answer is B) CN VIII. CN VIII is the auditory nerve, which is responsible for hearing. The Rinne test, which evaluates conductive hearing loss, is performed by striking a tuning fork at 256 or 512 Hz and placing it on the mastoid process. A normal test will show that air conduction is twice the time of bone conduction. If conductive hearing loss is present, bone conduction will be longer than air conduction. Choice A is incorrect. CN VI innervates the abducens nerve which is responsible for the movement of the lateral rectus eye muscle. Choice C is incorrect. CN VII innervates the facial nerve which is responsible for facial expression and taste. Choice D is incorrect. CN V innervates the trigeminal nerve which is responsible for facial movement and touch sensation.
Diagnosis A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with group A streptococcus (GAS) pharyngitis and is prescribed amoxicillin; his mother expresses concern regarding his sister, who is ten months old. She asks, “How will I know if she has it?“. How do you respond?
A. “Symptom presentation is similar to older children. Observe for her touching her neck which may indicate pain.“
B. “It is best for his sister to be treated with a prophylactic regimen of amoxicillin in case she has it, because it can be hard to tell with children that young.”
C. “Observe your daughter for fussiness, poor-feeding, and a fever.” ✓
D. “It is highly unlikely that a child this young would have a strep infection, but observe for vomiting or diarrhea as these are tell-tale signs.”
Correct — C. The correct answer is B) “Observe your daughter for fussiness, poor-feeding, and a fever.”. GAS infections present with non-specific signs such as fussiness, poor feeding, and fever in children less than one year of age. Choice A is incorrect. Empiric therapy for asymptomatic persons on the basis of exposure is not advised due to potential side effects and resistance concerns with antibiotic therapy. Choice C is incorrect. Symptom presentation of GAS infections in infants is NOT similar to the presentation in older children; symptoms in infants are non-specific and include fussiness, poor feeding, and fever. Choice D is incorrect. Vomiting and diarrhea are not typical symptoms of GAS infections in infants.
About the FNP test
FNP Exam Prep 2026 helps you pass with 1054+ realistic practice questions, each with a clear explanation.
Features
- 1054+ practice questions with detailed answer explanations
- Study modes: quick 10, mock exam, timed, missed questions, and study by topic
- Progress tracking with subject accuracy and a learning curve
- Clean, distraction-free design built for focused study
Whether you are just starting or doing a final review before test day, FNP Exam Prep gives you the questions and explanations you need to build confidence and pass.
You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
How TheoryPractice helps you pass
- Real exam-style questions with instant, detailed explanations
- Full timed mock exams that mirror the real test format
- Flashcards & quiz modes from the same question bank
- Progress tracking so you know exactly when you're ready
Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
Full FNP bank + unlimited mocks
Try 30 questions free. Unlock the complete FNP question bank, every explanation, and unlimited timed mock exams. Practice on any device.
Unlock FNP →