TheoryFP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
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30 free FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep questions
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FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
You are responding to a remote location to assess an elderly patient who fell. She opens her eyes when you call her name, appears confused when speaking, and withdraws her hand when you apply pressure to her nail bed. What is this patient's GCS score?
Correct — D. Answer: 11 - E3, V4, M4 The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses eye, verbal, and motor responses to evaluate consciousness levels. The patient opens her eyes to verbal command (score: 3), provides confused responses (score: 4), and withdraws from pain (score: 4). Adding these scores gives the GCS: $$3 + 4 + 4 = 11$$. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following best describes the neuropathophysiology of a migraine headache?
Correct — B. Answer: The neuropathophysiology of migraine headaches is not fully understood. Although many theories suggest that migraines might be caused by abnormal brain activity that affects nerve signals, chemicals, and blood vessels in the brain, the exact mechanisms remain unknown. Triggers may include environmental, genetic, and individual factors. Providers often attribute specific migraines to stress, hormonal changes, sensory stimuli, certain foods, and other factors. However, the complex biological processes leading to migraines are still being researched. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which type of intracerebral hemorrhage has the highest association with high morbidity and mortality following a traumatic brain injury?
Correct — B. Answer: Acute intracerebral hemorrhage Intracerebral hemorrhage, which involves bleeding within the brain tissues, is often classified as acute, subacute, and chronic based on the onset and progression of symptoms. Acute intracerebral hemorrhage symptoms typically present within 24 hours of a traumatic brain injury and are associated with the highest rates of death and disability. This high mortality rate is linked to the rapid and severe increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) that occurs with acute hemorrhage. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is commonly used to assess the severity of neurological injury in these cases. A GCS score of less than 8 is associated with a mortality rate ranging from 50% to 90%. Subacute intracerebral hemorrhage symptoms appear between 2 to 10 days post-injury, while chronic intracerebral hemorrhage symptoms develop more than two weeks after the initial trauma. Prompt recognition and management are crucial to reducing the adverse outcomes linked with acute intracerebral hemorrhage. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
During a critical care flight of a four-year-old male patient weighing 20 kg, you need to administer midazolam intravenously. The medication concentration is 5 mg/mL and the recommended dosage is 0.1 mg/kg. How much volume (in mL) of midazolam should you administer? Medication Concentration (mg/mL) Recommended Dosage (mg/kg) Midazolam 5 0.1 Child Weight (kg) 20
Correct — C. Calculate total dose: 20 kg × 0.1 mg/kg = 2 mg. Calculate volume: 2 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 0.4 mL. Therefore administer 0.4 mL IV. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
You are providing care for a 70-year-old patient with asthma weighing 70 kg who is being transported via fixed-wing aircraft to a tertiary care center. Arterial blood gas: pH 7.35, $$PaCO_{2}$$ 45 mm Hg, $$PaO_{2}$$ 60 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L. Current ventilator settings: SIMV, tidal volume (Vt) 550 mL, respiratory rate 14/min, PEEP 5 cm $$H_{2}O$$, $$FiO_{2}$$ 0.50. Which ventilator adjustment would best address the patient's hypoxemia?
Correct — A. The patient is hypoxemic ($$PaO_{2}$$ 60 mm Hg) while on $$FiO_{2}$$ 0.50. The most direct initial intervention to improve oxygenation is to increase $$FiO_{2}$$. Increasing PEEP could improve oxygenation if there is alveolar collapse but may risk worsening dynamic hyperinflation in obstructive disease and is not the first step here. Increasing tidal volume is unnecessary for hypoxemia and can increase the risk of barotrauma. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
A patient on a ventilator receives a specific tidal volume that maintains open alveoli with each breath. However, some alveoli collapse due to a failure to sustain Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP). This phenomenon is known as:
Correct — C. Answer: Cyclic atelectasis Cyclic atelectasis is when a patient takes an inspiratory breath, causing the alveoli to open, but the alveoli are unable to maintain their open position with exhalation, immediately collapsing. This cycle repeats with each breath, potentially leading to both local and systemic inflammation within the lung. In ventilated patients, PEEP is used to prevent alveolar collapse during expiration and is most effective when combined with a set tidal volume to maintain alveolar recruitment during exhalation. Auto-PEEP is a physiologic event often seen in mechanically ventilated patients, particularly those with acute severe asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or those on inverse ratio ventilation. Physiological atelectasis is not an accurate term, as atelectasis is not a natural physiological process. Pathological atelectasis refers to any atelectasis caused by a disease process or bodily change. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
When using the Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) for airway management in a prehospital setting, which is the most critical step to ensure it is correctly positioned?
Correct — D. Answer: Inflate the cuff and observe for chest rise and adequate ventilation The Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) is an essential tool in prehospital airway management, particularly when intubation is not feasible. The correct positioning of the LMA is confirmed by inflating the cuff and ensuring there is chest rise and adequate ventilation. Checking for its presence inside the mouth, lubrication, and rotating the LMA are important steps but do not confirm proper positioning. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
In which of the following situations should the rapid sequence induction (RSI) protocol not be used?
Correct — A. Answer: The patient is allergic to succinylcholine. RSI involves the use of paralytic agents like succinylcholine or rocuronium. If a patient has an allergy to succinylcholine, an alternative agent must be used, and the standard RSI protocol would not be appropriate. RSI is often indicated in patients with a full stomach to reduce the risk of aspiration, in patients with rapidly declining consciousness, or those with a GCS score of 8 or less who are unable to protect their own airway. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following medications is most appropriate for sedation in a trauma patient that requires both pain relief and amnesia?
Correct — C. Answer: Ketamine Ketamine is a unique drug used for sedation, especially in trauma patients, because it provides both analgesia (pain relief) and amnesia. It works through dissociation of the thalamus and limbic system, making it highly effective during procedural sedation. Fentanyl provides strong analgesia and some sedation but does not induce amnesia. Etomidate and Propofol are primarily used for anesthesia but do not provide significant analgesia or amnesia. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Each of the following are considered standard components of care in patients experiencing anaphylactic shock, except:
Correct — B. Answer: Administering antibiotics The standard components of care for patients experiencing anaphylactic shock include the administration of epinephrine to counteract the severe allergic reaction, the administration of intravenous fluids to support blood pressure, and providing airway support to prevent asphyxiation. Administering antibiotics is not a standard component of immediate care during anaphylactic shock as it is primarily used to treat infections, not allergic reactions. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
What would be the first management priority for a patient with severe chest pain, HR 110, BP 85/55, SpO₂ of 97% and suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?
Correct — B. Answer: Initiate immediate administration of aspirin. Administering aspirin is the initial step in managing a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) because it helps to inhibit platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of further clot formation. Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when the blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked for a long enough time that part of the heart muscle is damaged or dies. Patients typically present with severe chest pain, which may radiate, accompanied by symptoms such as nausea, sweating, and shortness of breath. Aspirin is a first-line treatment because it is easily administered and helps immediately. Nitroglycerin may be administered in acute coronary syndrome but is not the first priority. Dopamine is not appropriate initially as this patient's hypotension is not yet severe enough to warrant its use without first addressing the potential blockage in blood flow. Oxygen therapy may be initiated if SpO₂ levels fall below 93%, but the patient's current oxygen saturation is adequate. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a patient experiencing acute lithium toxicity?
Correct — A. Answer: Administration of intravenous fluids The most appropriate treatment for a patient with acute lithium toxicity is the administration of intravenous fluids to enhance renal elimination of lithium. Bicarbonate is not indicated for lithium toxicity but is used for conditions such as salicylate poisoning with metabolic acidosis. Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine toxicity. Activated charcoal is generally ineffective for lithium as it does not bind well to lithium ions. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
All of the following are primary actions to take when managing a patient with severe anaphylactic shock during a flight except:
Correct — A. Answer: Administering antiviral medication In the event of severe anaphylactic shock during a flight, the flight paramedic should prioritize administering intramuscular epinephrine, ensuring the patient's airway remains clear, and providing supplemental oxygen. These actions are critical to patient survival as they directly address the symptoms and underlying causes of anaphylaxis. Antiviral medications, however, are irrelevant in this context as they do not treat anaphylactic shock. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which medication can be used as an alternative to naloxone in cases of opioid overdose if naloxone is unavailable?
Correct — C. Answer: Naltrexone Naloxone and naltrexone are both opioid antagonists that can be used to reverse opioid overdoses. Naloxone is commonly used in emergency situations due to its rapid onset of action and ability to be administered intranasally or intravenously. If naloxone is unavailable, naltrexone can be administered as an alternative, though it is typically used in a different context such as maintenance therapy for opioid dependence. Flumazenil is used to treat benzodiazepine overdoses. Activated charcoal is used to absorb certain ingested toxins, particularly within a short time of ingestion. Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat acidosis, often in overdoses involving tricyclic antidepressants. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
A patient sustained multiple injuries from the sudden impact and debris during a high-velocity car crash. There are deep lacerations noted on the patient's face, arms, and legs due to broken glass. Which type of injury pattern is primarily responsible for these lacerations?
Correct — D. Answer: Secondary Traumatic injuries can be classified into different stages similar to blast injuries. Secondary injuries are caused by projectiles and debris such as broken glass during a car crash. These injuries include deep lacerations and penetration wounds. Primary injuries are typically caused by the direct impact and pressure shock waves from the collision itself, affecting gas-filled structures like the lungs. Tertiary injuries result from the sudden displacement or acceleration/deceleration of the body upon impact. Quaternary injuries are due to subsequent elements such as heat or chemical exposure from the crash. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
A patient is being transported by helicopter and has sustained a burn injury requiring the application of dressings. Which of the following statements about the use of dressings during air medical transport is the most accurate?
Correct — D. Answer: Bulky dressings should be avoided as much as possible due to space limitations in the aircraft. During air medical transport, the confined and cramped spaces of helicopters or other aircraft pose challenges for the transport of patients with burns. Large or bulky dressings can complicate the process of loading, transporting, and unloading patients. Medical crews must ensure dressings are appropriately sized and applied without interfering with the limited space in the aircraft. Depending on the burn severity and location, different types of dressings and additional support means (such as blanket rolls, pillows, etc.) may be utilized to ensure patient safety and comfort. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies the principles of a Just Culture in a healthcare setting?
Correct — C. Answer: A hospital administrator implements a training program on dosage calculations after several nurses misdose a pediatric patient. The correct answer involves providing training and support to healthcare workers who made dosage errors. Just Culture is defined as "a system of shared accountability in which all contributing factors to accidents or sentinel events are considered." This approach ensures that behaviors are identified, and accountability is maintained without placing blame. The goal is to anticipate human error and plan accordingly without punishing healthcare providers for their mistakes. Just Culture involves recognition, support, training, and discipline as needed to address human error. Assigning blame does not align with Just Culture principles, nor does imposing undue discipline without altering and improving existing systems. While discipline can be part of Just Culture, it should be combined with efforts to enhance systemic processes, rather than punishment without accompanying improvements. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
In the context of the STAR Method for interviewing, what does the 'S' stand for?
Correct — C. Answer: Situation The 'S' in the STAR Method stands for 'Situation.' The STAR Method is a structured manner of responding to a behavioral-based interview question by discussing the specific Situation, Task, Action, and Result of the situation you are describing. The method is broken down as follows: S: Situation. Describe the context within which you performed a task or faced a challenge at work. T: Task. Explain what your responsibility was in that situation. A: Action. Describe how you completed the task or faced the challenge. R: Result. Explain the outcomes or results of your actions. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following interventions is not appropriate as an initial step in the management of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
Correct — A. Answer: Administer nitric oxide Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is commonly seen in preterm infants due to the lack of surfactant in the lungs, which leads to poor lung compliance and atelectasis. First-line treatments for RDS aim to improve lung function and oxygenation. The administration of surfactant is critical as it reduces surface tension in the alveoli, improving lung compliance and oxygenation. Delivery of 100% oxygen via CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) helps in maintaining alveolar expansion and improving oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation may also be necessary if the neonate is unable to maintain adequate oxygenation with CPAP alone. Nitric oxide, while useful in treating Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension of the Newborn (PPHN), is not a standard initial treatment for RDS. It is not used unless there is a confirmed diagnosis of PPHN. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
During transport of a neonate who has been experiencing persistent vomiting and is assessed with a rapid and weak central pulse, cool extremities, a respiration rate of 50 bpm, and poor responsiveness to stimuli, you note a capillary refill time of over four seconds. Initial BP is 75/45 mm Hg, and blood glucose level is recorded at 28 mg/dL. After administering 100% oxygen through a face mask and establishing IV access, what should be the next step in management?
Correct — D. The patient likely experiences hypovolemic shock due to severe dehydration, indicated by symptoms like weak pulse, cold extremities, and low BP. Immediate action should include fluid resuscitation with 20 mL/kg isotonic crystalloid solution, administered quickly. Hypoglycemia, evident from low glucose levels, requires dextrose administration; for infants, D25W 2 to 4 mL/kg is appropriate. Capillary refill time and other vital signs should constantly be rechecked. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment for a pediatric patient experiencing Severe Asthma Exacerbation?
Correct — D. Answer: 20 ml/kg IV fluids For a pediatric patient experiencing a severe asthma exacerbation, administering 20 ml/kg IV fluids is not appropriate. Severe asthma exacerbation needs prompt bronchodilation and anti-inflammatory treatment. Standard treatments include administration of nebulized albuterol, ipratropium bromide, and possible systemic corticosteroids. IV fluids should be provided judiciously, as excessive fluid administration can exacerbate the condition by increasing the burden on the lungs. Key drugs for managing severe asthma exacerbation include albuterol to reduce bronchoconstriction, ipratropium bromide which works synergistically with albuterol, and in some refractory cases, magnesium sulfate to aid in bronchodilation. Symptoms of a severe asthma exacerbation in pediatric patients can include severe wheezing, marked chest rise, use of accessory muscles to breathe, and difficulty speaking in full sentences. The goal is to relieve bronchospasm and improve lung function rapidly. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
A 7-year-old boy fell off his bicycle while riding down a hill and landed on his back and head. He is crying and reports pain in his head, neck, and back. On arrival, the local EMS team has the patient secured with a cervical collar and an IV in place. What is the best approach for managing this patient’s potential spinal injury?
Correct — B. Answer: Padding should be placed under the patient from the shoulders to the pelvis In pediatric patients, protecting the spine requires ensuring that immobilization equipment fits the child's smaller size. Padding should be applied from the shoulders to the pelvis to account for the child's larger occipital region while maintaining neutral spinal alignment. Padding only the shoulders is useful for ventilation to keep the airway open but can misalign the cervical spine. Though cervical spine injuries are rare in children, they can happen. As in adults, the risks of spinal immobilization can outweigh the benefits, but experts recommend immobilizing pediatric patients when a spinal injury is suspected or the injury mechanism suggests one. Some suggest spinal motion restriction is better, as full immobilization can be challenging in young patients. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
A five-year-old male presents with symptoms consistent with croup. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate during transport?
Correct — D. Answer: EMS should administer nebulized epinephrine and keep the child calm and comfortable. Croup is a common respiratory condition in young children caused by viral infections leading to inflammation of the larynx and trachea. It typically affects children between the ages of six months and six years. Children with croup present with a distinct barking cough, hoarseness, and stridor (a high-pitched wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow). During transport, it is crucial to keep the child as calm and comfortable as possible. Administration of nebulized epinephrine can help reduce airway swelling, and keeping the patient calm reduces the risk of exacerbation of symptoms. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following is the appropriate way to test the Babinski reflex in infants?
Correct — D. Answer: Stroke the sole of the foot and observe toe extension Neurological assessments in infants include testing reflexes that they are born with. The Babinski reflex is observed when the sole of the foot is stroked, and the infant's toes extend outwards. This reflex helps assess neurological development and function in infants. Other reflexes to test include the Moro reflex, whereby the infant is startled by a loud noise, and the sucking reflex, where the infant will suck on a gloved finger placed in their mouth. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which gas law explains why a balloon expands as it ascends to higher altitudes during flight?
Correct — A. Answer: Boyle's Law Boyle's Law states: "The pressure and volume of a gas have an inverse relationship when temperature is constant." As a balloon ascends to higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure decreases, causing the volume of the balloon to increase. This expansion can be observed in flight physiology as the pressure decreases with altitude. Henry's Law deals with the solubility of gases in liquids and is not relevant to the expansion of a balloon. Charles' Law relates to the volume of gas and its temperature, which also does not account for pressure changes that a balloon experiences during ascent. Fick's Law explains the diffusion of gases and does not pertain to the volume and pressure changes of a gas in a balloon. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which environmental stress encountered during high-altitude flights can lead to increased intracranial pressure, nausea, and confusion?
Correct — C. Answer: Hypoxia During high-altitude flights, a significant drop in ambient oxygen levels can lead to hypoxia. This condition can cause various symptoms including increased intracranial pressure, nausea, and confusion. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening of symptoms and potential loss of consciousness. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Identify the signs and symptoms of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS).
Correct — A. Answer: Headache, nausea, dizziness, insomnia Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS) typically presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. This condition occurs due to reduced air pressure and lower oxygen levels at high altitudes. Severe symptoms may progress to High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) or High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE). -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is what type of drug?
Correct — B. Answer: Beta 1 agonist Epinephrine is a beta 1 agonist and is often used to increase heart rate, myocardial contractility, and conduction velocity. It is commonly indicated in cardiac arrest, severe hypotension, and anaphylaxis. Care should be taken with its use as it can increase myocardial oxygen demand and may precipitate arrhythmias in some patients. Epinephrine also has alpha and beta 2 agonist effects, contributing to its vasoconstrictive and bronchodilatory properties. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which condition is a contraindication for the administration of thrombolytic therapy in patients with acute myocardial infarction?
Correct — C. Answer: Recent gastrointestinal bleeding It is vital for critical care providers to recognize the contraindications for thrombolytic therapy to avoid serious complications. Thrombolytic therapy can be significantly beneficial in managing acute myocardial infarction by dissolving the clot causing the blockage. However, there are contraindications that must be heeded. Recent gastrointestinal bleeding, recent surgery, or hemorrhagic stroke are absolute contraindications. Acute inferior myocardial infarction, hypotension, and hypertension are not contraindications but may require careful monitoring. -
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep
Which of the following safety measures is most essential for flight crew members when transitioning to aquatic transport situations?
Correct — B. Answer: All crew members should be trained in water survival techniques. In order to be prepared in case of an aquatic transport situation, all programs should have response plans in place for water-related emergencies. Both the patient and all crew members should be equipped with proper safety gear such as life jackets. However, training in water survival techniques is crucial to ensure all crew members can effectively respond to emergencies in such scenarios.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep A five-year-old male presents with symptoms consistent with croup. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate during transport?
A. EMS should administer steroids and prepare to intubate the patient using Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI) if his condition begins to deteriorate.
B. EMS should prepare to secure an airway using surgical cricothyroidotomy if his condition begins to deteriorate.
C. EMS should insert an intravenous catheter to administer fluids and medications.
D. EMS should administer nebulized epinephrine and keep the child calm and comfortable. ✓
Correct — D. Answer: EMS should administer nebulized epinephrine and keep the child calm and comfortable. Croup is a common respiratory condition in young children caused by viral infections leading to inflammation of the larynx and trachea. It typically affects children between the ages of six months and six years. Children with croup present with a distinct barking cough, hoarseness, and stridor (a high-pitched wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow). During transport, it is crucial to keep the child as calm and comfortable as possible. Administration of nebulized epinephrine can help reduce airway swelling, and keeping the patient calm reduces the risk of exacerbation of symptoms.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Which of the following is the appropriate way to test the Babinski reflex in infants?
A. Make a loud noise and see if the infant startles
B. Lift the infant by the armpits while supporting the head
C. Place a gloved finger into the infant's mouth
D. Stroke the sole of the foot and observe toe extension ✓
Correct — D. Answer: Stroke the sole of the foot and observe toe extension Neurological assessments in infants include testing reflexes that they are born with. The Babinski reflex is observed when the sole of the foot is stroked, and the infant's toes extend outwards. This reflex helps assess neurological development and function in infants. Other reflexes to test include the Moro reflex, whereby the infant is startled by a loud noise, and the sucking reflex, where the infant will suck on a gloved finger placed in their mouth.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Which gas law explains why a balloon expands as it ascends to higher altitudes during flight?
A. Boyle's Law ✓
B. Henry's Law
C. Charles' Law
D. Fick's Law
Correct — A. Answer: Boyle's Law Boyle's Law states: "The pressure and volume of a gas have an inverse relationship when temperature is constant." As a balloon ascends to higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure decreases, causing the volume of the balloon to increase. This expansion can be observed in flight physiology as the pressure decreases with altitude. Henry's Law deals with the solubility of gases in liquids and is not relevant to the expansion of a balloon. Charles' Law relates to the volume of gas and its temperature, which also does not account for pressure changes that a balloon experiences during ascent. Fick's Law explains the diffusion of gases and does not pertain to the volume and pressure changes of a gas in a balloon.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Which environmental stress encountered during high-altitude flights can lead to increased intracranial pressure, nausea, and confusion?
A. Dehydration
B. Hyperventilation
C. Hypoxia ✓
D. Turbulence
Correct — C. Answer: Hypoxia During high-altitude flights, a significant drop in ambient oxygen levels can lead to hypoxia. This condition can cause various symptoms including increased intracranial pressure, nausea, and confusion. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening of symptoms and potential loss of consciousness.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Identify the signs and symptoms of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS).
A. Headache, nausea, dizziness, insomnia ✓
B. Chest pain, arrhythmia, cyanosis
C. Severe muscle cramps, joint swelling, cold sweats
D. Vision loss, severe dehydration, skin rashes
Correct — A. Answer: Headache, nausea, dizziness, insomnia Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS) typically presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. This condition occurs due to reduced air pressure and lower oxygen levels at high altitudes. Severe symptoms may progress to High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) or High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE).
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is what type of drug?
A. Alpha 2 agonist
B. Beta 1 agonist ✓
C. Alpha 1 agonist
D. Beta 2 antagonist
Correct — B. Answer: Beta 1 agonist Epinephrine is a beta 1 agonist and is often used to increase heart rate, myocardial contractility, and conduction velocity. It is commonly indicated in cardiac arrest, severe hypotension, and anaphylaxis. Care should be taken with its use as it can increase myocardial oxygen demand and may precipitate arrhythmias in some patients. Epinephrine also has alpha and beta 2 agonist effects, contributing to its vasoconstrictive and bronchodilatory properties.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Which condition is a contraindication for the administration of thrombolytic therapy in patients with acute myocardial infarction?
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Recent gastrointestinal bleeding ✓
D. Acute inferior myocardial infarction
Correct — C. Answer: Recent gastrointestinal bleeding It is vital for critical care providers to recognize the contraindications for thrombolytic therapy to avoid serious complications. Thrombolytic therapy can be significantly beneficial in managing acute myocardial infarction by dissolving the clot causing the blockage. However, there are contraindications that must be heeded. Recent gastrointestinal bleeding, recent surgery, or hemorrhagic stroke are absolute contraindications. Acute inferior myocardial infarction, hypotension, and hypertension are not contraindications but may require careful monitoring.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Which of the following safety measures is most essential for flight crew members when transitioning to aquatic transport situations?
A. Training for water survival techniques is optional for medical air transport crew.
B. All crew members should be trained in water survival techniques. ✓
C. All crew members are required to wear life jackets at all times during transport.
D. Only the patient is required to wear a life jacket during aquatic transport.
Correct — B. Answer: All crew members should be trained in water survival techniques. In order to be prepared in case of an aquatic transport situation, all programs should have response plans in place for water-related emergencies. Both the patient and all crew members should be equipped with proper safety gear such as life jackets. However, training in water survival techniques is crucial to ensure all crew members can effectively respond to emergencies in such scenarios.
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You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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