TheoryGulf Nurse Prometric
Practice Test
Ace Gulf nursing Prometric exams (DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP, NHRA, MOH) with 150+ clinical questions and timed mock assessments.
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30 free Gulf Nurse Prometric questions
Sampled across every topic area — not just the first page. Try them as a quiz or flip them as flashcards.
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Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. Which of the following is the correct order of the Five Rights of medication administration?
Correct — C. The Five Rights of medication administration are: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. These must be verified before every medication administration to ensure patient safety. -
Nursing Fundamentals
When performing hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub, how long should the nurse rub their hands together?
Correct — B. WHO guidelines recommend rubbing hands with an alcohol-based hand rub for 20–30 seconds (about 6 steps) until hands are dry. This duration ensures adequate coverage and antiseptic effect. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A patient is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most effective in prevention?
Correct — D. Regular repositioning every 2 hours is the most effective pressure ulcer prevention strategy. It relieves pressure on bony prominences. Note: Massaging reddened areas is contraindicated as it can damage fragile capillaries. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is assessing a patient's oxygen saturation (SpO2). Which reading indicates mild hypoxemia requiring intervention?
Correct — B. SpO2 of 93% indicates mild hypoxemia (normal ≥ 95%). Values below 90% indicate severe hypoxemia. The nurse should increase supplemental oxygen and notify the physician if SpO2 does not improve. -
Nursing Fundamentals
When inserting a urinary catheter in a female patient, which action is most important to prevent infection?
Correct — C. Maintaining strict sterile technique throughout catheter insertion is the most critical action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI). Cleaning should proceed from the meatus outward (not toward the anus) to avoid introducing pathogens. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A patient rates their pain as 7 on a 0–10 numeric rating scale. How should the nurse classify this pain level?
Correct — A. On the 0–10 numeric rating scale: 0 = no pain; 1–3 = mild; 4–6 = moderate; 7–10 = severe. A rating of 7 falls in the severe category and typically warrants prompt analgesic intervention and reassessment within 30–60 minutes. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A patient needs 4 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula. What approximate FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) does this deliver?
Correct — D. Each liter per minute of nasal cannula oxygen increases FiO2 by approximately 4% above room air (21%). At 4 L/min: 21% + (4×4%) = 37% ≈ 36%. The formula is: FiO2 ≈ 21% + (4% × L/min flow rate). -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse notices the IV insertion site is red, warm, and slightly swollen. The patient reports tenderness. What does this indicate?
Correct — B. Phlebitis (inflammation of the vein) presents with redness, warmth, swelling, and pain along the IV site. The nurse should discontinue the IV, remove the catheter, apply a warm compress, and restart in a different vein. Infiltration involves non-irritant fluid entering tissue (no warmth); extravasation involves vesicant fluid. -
Nursing Fundamentals
When using correct body mechanics to move a patient, what is the most important principle?
Correct — C. Using the large leg muscles (hip and knee extensors) rather than the back is the cornerstone of safe body mechanics. Keep the back straight, bend at knees and hips, keep load close to body, and maintain a wide base of support. -
Nursing Fundamentals
Before administering medications or feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube, how should the nurse confirm correct placement?
Correct — D. The gold standard for initial NG tube placement is X-ray. For ongoing use, aspirating gastric contents (typically yellow-green or clear) and checking pH ≤ 5.5 with a pH indicator strip is recommended. The air-auscultation method alone is unreliable and no longer recommended as the sole check. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is performing a wound assessment. Which finding is consistent with normal wound healing in the inflammatory phase (days 1–4)?
Correct — A. The inflammatory phase (days 1–4) is characterized by redness (rubor), warmth (calor), swelling (tumor), and pain (dolor) — the cardinal signs of inflammation. This is a normal response that promotes healing through increased blood flow and immune cell migration. Concern arises if signs persist beyond day 5 with fever or purulent discharge. -
Nursing Fundamentals
Which route of temperature measurement is considered the most accurate (core temperature)?
Correct — C. Rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate reflection of core body temperature because the rectum is a closed cavity with little air exposure. Normal rectal temperature is approximately 37.5°C (99.5°F). Tympanic is convenient but less accurate; axillary is least accurate. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is calculating a patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The patient opens eyes to voice (3), makes incomprehensible sounds (2), and shows abnormal flexion (3). What is the total GCS score?
Correct — B. GCS = Eye opening + Verbal response + Motor response = 3 + 2 + 3 = 8. GCS 8 or below indicates coma and the need to consider airway protection. The scale ranges from 3 (deep coma/death) to 15 (fully conscious). -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is monitoring a patient's chest tube with water-seal drainage. Which observation is expected and normal?
Correct — A. Tidaling (fluctuation of water level with breathing) in the water-seal chamber is a normal finding indicating the system is patent and functioning. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak. No fluctuation may indicate lung re-expansion or a blocked tube. Output >200 mL/hr warrants physician notification. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is inserting a peripheral IV catheter. After inserting the needle and seeing a blood flashback, what is the next step?
Correct — D. Blood flashback confirms the needle is in the vein. The correct next step is to advance the plastic catheter forward off the needle into the vein, then withdraw and discard the needle, and secure the catheter. Advancing the needle further risks puncturing the posterior wall of the vein. -
Nursing Fundamentals
Which minimum urine output per hour is acceptable for an adult patient and indicates adequate kidney perfusion?
Correct — C. The minimum acceptable urine output for an adult is 30 mL/hr (0.5 mL/kg/hr for a 60-kg patient). Output below 30 mL/hr for two consecutive hours suggests oliguria and potential renal hypoperfusion, requiring prompt physician notification. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which two identifiers must be used to verify the patient's identity before starting?
Correct — A. Before any blood transfusion, two unique patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth, or name and medical record number) must be verified against the blood product label and compatibility report. Using room/bed numbers alone is unsafe and does not uniquely identify the patient. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is caring for a patient who is at high risk for falls. Which intervention is the highest priority?
Correct — B. The priority fall prevention measures include keeping the bed in the lowest position, ensuring the call light is within reach, locking bed wheels, and keeping frequently needed items accessible. Restraints are a last resort and require physician orders. Sedatives increase fall risk. Signage alone is insufficient. -
Nursing Fundamentals
When performing tracheostomy care, how often should the inner cannula be cleaned, and which solution is appropriate for cleaning?
Correct — C. Tracheostomy inner cannula care is typically performed every 8 hours (varies by policy). Hydrogen peroxide (3%) is used to remove secretions and debris, followed by a normal saline rinse to remove residual peroxide which can damage tissue. Some facilities use normal saline only for silver-lined cannulas. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A patient has a central venous catheter (CVC). Which nursing assessment indicates a serious complication requiring immediate action?
Correct — D. Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and unilateral decreased breath sounds following CVC insertion or manipulation suggest pneumothorax — a serious, potentially life-threatening complication. Immediate notification of the physician and preparation for chest X-ray and possible needle decompression are required. CVP 6 mmHg is normal. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is preparing to set up a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. What is the nurse's primary safety responsibility?
Correct — A. PCA pump setup requires a double-nurse verification of the drug, concentration, and programmed settings against the medication order. Only the patient should press the PCA button (proxy dosing by family is unsafe). Lock-out intervals prevent overdose by limiting frequency of self-administered doses. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse is giving a SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) handoff to an oncoming nurse. What information belongs in the 'Assessment' component?
Correct — B. In SBAR: S (Situation) = current problem; B (Background) = relevant history/diagnosis; A (Assessment) = the nurse's clinical interpretation and judgment (e.g., 'I think the patient is deteriorating due to fluid overload'); R (Recommendation) = what the nurse needs (orders, labs, transfer). The Assessment is the communicator's expert opinion. -
Nursing Fundamentals
A nurse needs to apply a sterile dressing to a postoperative wound. Which action breaks sterile technique?
Correct — C. Reaching across a sterile field introduces contamination because the arm (a non-sterile area) passes over the sterile field. Items should be placed by approaching from the nearest edge. The 1-inch (2.5 cm) border of sterile drapes IS considered non-sterile and is a correct concept. -
Pharmacology
A patient is receiving IV heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess therapeutic effect?
Correct — A. aPTT is used to monitor IV heparin therapy. The therapeutic range is typically 1.5–2.5 times the control value. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin (oral anticoagulant) therapy. -
Pharmacology
A nurse is preparing to administer NPH insulin. Which of the following is the correct description of NPH insulin?
Correct — C. NPH (Neutral Protamine Hagedorn) is an intermediate-acting insulin with onset 2–4 hours, peak 4–12 hours, and duration 12–18 hours. It appears cloudy and must be gently rolled (not shaken) before use. -
Pharmacology
A patient is prescribed metoprolol (a beta-1 selective blocker). Which condition is a contraindication to this medication?
Correct — C. Beta-blockers are contraindicated in cardiogenic shock (severe systolic dysfunction with hypotension), significant bradycardia (<60 bpm), second- or third-degree AV block (without pacemaker), and decompensated heart failure. They are used therapeutically for hypertension, stable angina, and rate control in atrial fibrillation. -
Pharmacology
A patient is started on lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) for hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse teach the patient to monitor and report?
Correct — B. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough (due to accumulation of bradykinin in the lung) — the most common reason for discontinuation. They also cause hyperkalemia (potassium retention due to decreased aldosterone). Other adverse effects: angioedema (a serious complication), first-dose hypotension, and elevated creatinine. -
Pharmacology
A patient on digoxin (cardiac glycoside) reports nausea, blurred or yellow-green vision, and their apical pulse is 48 bpm. Which nursing action is the priority?
Correct — A. The patient is showing signs of digoxin toxicity: bradycardia, GI symptoms (nausea/vomiting), and visual disturbances (yellow-green halos). Therapeutic range is 0.5–2 ng/mL. HOLD the dose, notify physician, check digoxin level and serum potassium (hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity). Antidote: Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) for severe toxicity. -
Pharmacology
A patient is receiving morphine for post-operative pain. Which adverse effect requires the nurse's most immediate attention?
Correct — D. While all listed effects are adverse effects of opioids, respiratory depression is the most life-threatening and requires immediate action. Respiratory rate ≤12 breaths/min warrants holding the next dose and notifying the physician. If severe (RR <8 or unresponsive), administer naloxone (opioid antagonist) per protocol. The nurse should also keep resuscitation equipment available. -
Pharmacology
A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin therapy. Which statement indicates the patient needs more education?
Correct — A. NSAIDs (ibuprofen) are contraindicated in patients on warfarin because they inhibit platelet function and irritate the gastric mucosa, significantly increasing bleeding risk. NSAIDs also displace warfarin from protein-binding sites, potentially elevating INR. The patient should use acetaminophen (paracetamol) for pain relief instead.
Gulf Nurse Prometric sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
Pharmacology A patient with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 28 mL/min) is prescribed metformin. What is the nurse's concern?
A. Metformin causes nephrotoxicity and will worsen kidney disease
B. Metformin is contraindicated (or requires dose adjustment) in significant renal impairment due to risk of lactic acidosis ✓
C. Metformin causes hyperkalemia in patients with kidney disease
D. Metformin requires a normal kidney function to be absorbed orally
Correct — B. Metformin is contraindicated when eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73m² due to accumulation of metformin and risk of lactic acidosis (metformin is renally cleared). Dose reduction is considered for eGFR 30–45. It is not nephrotoxic itself but relies on renal excretion. The nurse should hold the medication and notify the physician.
Medical-Surgical Nursing A patient presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Acute myocardial infarction (MI) ✓
B. Stable angina pectoris
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct — A. Classic MI symptoms include crushing or squeezing chest pain (often radiating to left arm, jaw, or back), diaphoresis, nausea, and dyspnea. Unlike stable angina, MI pain is not relieved by nitroglycerin and lasts >20 minutes. Immediate ECG and troponin levels are priorities.
Maternal & Newborn Nursing A nurse is monitoring a fetal heart rate (FHR) during labor. The normal baseline FHR for a term fetus is:
A. 80–100 bpm
B. 110–160 bpm ✓
C. 160–180 bpm
D. 60–100 bpm
Correct — B. Normal baseline fetal heart rate is 110–160 bpm. Bradycardia is defined as FHR <110 bpm for ≥10 minutes; tachycardia is >160 bpm for ≥10 minutes. Late decelerations (FHR drops after contraction peak) indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and require immediate intervention (oxygen, left lateral position, stop oxytocin, notify physician).
Pediatric Nursing A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. Which vital sign values are within the normal range for this age?
A. Heart rate 65, RR 14, BP 110/70
B. Heart rate 130, RR 34, BP 75/50 ✓
C. Heart rate 55, RR 10, BP 120/80
D. Heart rate 160, RR 50, BP 95/65
Correct — B. Normal vital signs for a 6-month-old: Heart rate 80–160 bpm; Respiratory rate 30–60 breaths/min; Blood pressure systolic 70–100 mmHg. Normal ranges change with age — neonates have the highest HR and RR. As age increases, HR and RR decrease and BP increases. Always compare to age-appropriate norms.
Mental Health Nursing A nurse is communicating with a depressed patient who says, 'What's the point? Nobody cares if I live or die.' Which response demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A. 'Don't talk like that — of course people care about you.'
B. 'I understand. Life can be very hard sometimes.'
C. 'It sounds like you're feeling very alone and hopeless. Can you tell me more about what you're feeling?' ✓
D. 'You should think about all the good things in your life.'
Correct — C. Therapeutic communication techniques include: active listening, reflecting, open-ended questions, and validating feelings. Option C reflects the patient's feelings and invites elaboration without minimizing or redirecting. Options A and D minimize/dismiss feelings (non-therapeutic). Option B is too vague. The nurse should also assess for suicidal ideation directly after establishing rapport.
Infection Control A nurse is donning PPE before entering a contact precaution room. What is the correct order for putting on PPE?
A. Mask, goggles, gown, gloves
B. Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
C. Gown, mask/respirator, goggles/face shield, gloves ✓
D. Goggles, gown, gloves, mask
Correct — C. Standard PPE donning order (CDC/WHO): (1) Gown first (protects clothing/skin); (2) Mask or respirator (N95 for airborne); (3) Goggles or face shield; (4) Gloves last (over gown cuffs). Doffing (removal) order is REVERSE: (1) Gloves (most contaminated); (2) Goggles/face shield; (3) Gown; (4) Mask/respirator. Perform hand hygiene between each doffing step. The order protects from self-contamination.
Ethics & Legal A patient scheduled for major surgery tells the nurse, 'The doctor explained the procedure but I don't really understand it. I just signed the consent form.' What should the nurse do?
A. The consent is valid since the patient signed it; proceed with pre-operative preparation
B. Notify the surgeon — the patient does not have informed consent; surgery should not proceed until the patient fully understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives ✓
C. Re-explain the procedure to the patient and co-sign the consent form
D. Ask the patient's family to make the decision instead
Correct — B. Valid informed consent requires: (1) Disclosure of relevant information (procedure, risks, benefits, alternatives, consequences of refusal); (2) Patient comprehension (understanding); (3) Voluntariness (no coercion); (4) Decision-making capacity. A signature without understanding is NOT valid informed consent. The nurse's role: assess understanding, act as patient advocate, notify the physician. The nurse does NOT re-obtain consent — that is the physician's responsibility.
Real Exam Practice Which client is most appropriate to assign to a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)?
A. Client 6 hours post-op from hip replacement requiring blood transfusion
B. Client with new diabetes diagnosis needing insulin education
C. Client scheduled for discharge needing medication review
D. Client with chronic pressure ulcer needing sterile dressing change ✓
Correct — D. Sterile dressing changes for a chronic, stable wound fall within LPN scope of practice. The other clients require RN-level assessment or teaching skills.
About the Gulf Nurse Prometric test
Prepare for Gulf nursing license exams including HAAD, DHA, MOH, and Prometric. Practice hundreds of nursing questions covering clinical care, pharmacology, and medical procedures. Pass your exam with confidence.
You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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