TheoryNBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
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NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep exam — full Q&A walkthrough
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30 free NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep questions
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NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A 55-year-old male patient reports sharp, shooting pain from the lower back radiating down the posterior aspect of the right leg to the lateral foot. Which nerve root is most likely involved?
Correct — D. The S1 nerve root innervates the posterior leg and lateral foot. Pain radiating along this dermatomal pattern strongly suggests S1 nerve root involvement. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A patient with chronic neck pain reports dizziness and nausea when turning her head to the left. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for vertebrobasilar insufficiency?
Correct — C. The Vertebral Artery Test (VAT) specifically evaluates blood flow through the vertebral arteries during cervical rotation and extension, helping identify potential vertebrobasilar insufficiency. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which blood test would be most appropriate to evaluate for an inflammatory condition in a patient with morning stiffness and multiple joint pain?
Correct — B. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is a non-specific marker of inflammation that is often elevated in inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthropathies. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A patient presents with severe headaches, low back pain, and significant fatigue. Which of the following would be most important to measure during the physical exam?
Correct — A. Blood pressure measurement is critical in a patient with severe headaches and fatigue as these symptoms could indicate hypertension, which may be a serious underlying cause requiring medical referral. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which finding would contraindicate high-velocity, low-amplitude manipulation to the cervical spine?
Correct — D. Upper motor neuron signs such as hyperreflexia, spasticity, and positive Babinski are indicative of central nervous system pathology that would contraindicate high-velocity, low-amplitude manipulation of the cervical spine. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which orthopedic test is most specific for diagnosing a lumbar disc herniation?
Correct — C. The straight leg raise (SLR) test has high specificity for lumbar disc herniation, especially when it reproduces the patient's radicular symptoms at less than 60 degrees of elevation. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A 62-year-old female with a history of breast cancer reports new-onset mid-thoracic pain that is worse at night and unrelieved by rest. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct — B. New-onset thoracic pain that is worse at night and unrelieved by rest in a patient with a history of cancer raises suspicion for metastatic disease. Immediate referral for advanced imaging is necessary to rule out spinal metastasis. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which of the following activities would be most appropriate to recommend for a patient recovering from an acute lumbar strain/sprain injury?
Correct — A. Short, frequent walks promote blood flow and healing without placing excessive stress on injured tissues, and help prevent deconditioning during recovery from an acute lumbar strain/sprain. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A patient presents with numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Which nerve is most likely compressed?
Correct — D. The median nerve innervates the thumb, index, middle finger, and lateral half of the ring finger. Compression of this nerve, often at the carpal tunnel, causes these characteristic symptoms. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which laboratory finding would be most concerning in a patient presenting with low back pain and unexplained weight loss?
Correct — C. An elevated PSA in a male patient with back pain and weight loss raises significant concern for prostate cancer with possible metastasis to the spine, warranting immediate referral. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
What is the most appropriate management for a patient with acute torticollis?
Correct — B. Gentle mobilization, myofascial release techniques, and heat therapy are the most appropriate initial interventions for acute torticollis to reduce muscle spasm and restore normal range of motion. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A patient with low back pain has a positive Valsalva sign. This finding most strongly suggests:
Correct — A. A positive Valsalva sign (increased pain with bearing down) suggests increased intradiscal or intraspinal pressure, which is commonly associated with disc pathology such as herniation. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
What view is most appropriate to evaluate for atlantoaxial instability?
Correct — D. Open-mouth (odontoid) view allows visualization of the dens and lateral masses of C1, which is essential for evaluating atlantoaxial alignment and potential instability. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A 25-year-old female presents with fatigue, multiple joint pain, and a butterfly-shaped rash on her face. Which laboratory test would be most appropriate to order?
Correct — C. Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) test is the initial screening test for systemic lupus erythematosus, which commonly presents with fatigue, joint pain, and a characteristic butterfly-shaped rash across the cheeks and nose. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to spinal manipulation?
Correct — B. Unstable vertebral fractures are an absolute contraindication to spinal manipulation due to the risk of further displacement and potential spinal cord injury. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A patient reports pain and numbness in the lateral thigh that worsens with prolonged standing. Which condition is most likely present?
Correct — A. Meralgia paresthetica involves compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, typically at the inguinal ligament, causing pain and numbness in the lateral thigh that worsens with prolonged standing or hip extension. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which finding on a CBC would most likely indicate an inflammatory process?
Correct — D. Elevated white blood cell count is a common indicator of an inflammatory process or infection, as white blood cells are recruited to sites of inflammation. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which muscle is being tested when a patient is asked to resist shoulder abduction at 90 degrees?
Correct — C. The supraspinatus muscle is primarily responsible for the first 15-30 degrees of shoulder abduction, but it continues to contribute significantly to abduction at 90 degrees. Testing resistance at this angle is a standard method for evaluating supraspinatus function. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A patient presents with upper extremity weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, and a positive Hoffman's sign. These findings are most consistent with:
Correct — B. Upper extremity weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, and a positive Hoffman's sign are all upper motor neuron signs that strongly suggest cervical myelopathy, which involves compression of the spinal cord in the cervical region. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
When documenting a patient's progress, which outcome assessment tool would be most appropriate for measuring functional disability in a patient with low back pain?
Correct — A. The Oswestry Disability Index (ODI) is a validated, condition-specific outcome measure designed specifically to assess functional disability in patients with low back pain. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
On a lateral cervical spine radiograph, what finding is most consistent with degenerative disc disease?
Correct — D. Degenerative disc disease typically presents with disc space narrowing on radiographic imaging. This is one of the hallmark findings of disc degeneration, often accompanied by other changes like osteophyte formation. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which radiographic finding is characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis in the advanced stage?
Correct — C. The classic radiographic finding in advanced ankylosing spondylitis is the bamboo spine appearance, which represents complete fusion of the vertebral bodies, facet joints, and ligamentous ossification, giving the spine a bamboo-like appearance. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A lumbar spine radiograph shows a bilateral defect in the pars interarticularis at L5. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct — B. Spondylolysis is defined as a defect in the pars interarticularis of a vertebra, most commonly affecting L5. When bilateral, it can lead to spondylolisthesis if the vertebra slips forward. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
On a PA chest radiograph, what would suggest the presence of a pneumothorax?
Correct — A. A pneumothorax appears as a dark (radiolucent) area without lung markings between the lung and chest wall. The visible pleural line represents the edge of the collapsed lung, creating a sharp boundary between the aerated lung and the air-filled pleural space. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
What radiographic sign is most characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis in the hands?
Correct — D. Periarticular osteopenia is an early radiographic finding in rheumatoid arthritis, representing the inflammatory process that leads to bone mineral loss around affected joints before erosions develop. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A cervical spine radiograph shows a complete anterior displacement of C5 on C6. What is the correct classification of this injury?
Correct — C. A Grade 3 dislocation in the Allen-Ferguson classification system represents complete anterior displacement of one vertebra on another, indicating severe ligamentous disruption and instability requiring immediate medical attention. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
Which radiographic finding is most consistent with diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)?
Correct — B. DISH is characterized by flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies, resembling candle wax dripping down the spine, with preservation of disc height and no sacroiliac joint erosion. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
On a lumbar spine radiograph, which finding suggests the presence of a compression fracture?
Correct — A. Anterior wedging of a vertebral body is the classic appearance of a compression fracture, where the anterior height of the vertebral body is reduced compared to the posterior height, giving it a wedge-shaped appearance. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
What radiographic finding is most suggestive of an osteosarcoma?
Correct — D. Osteosarcoma typically presents with a mixed lytic and blastic lesion with a sunburst periosteal reaction, representing the aggressive nature of this malignant bone tumor and its characteristic new bone formation pattern. -
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep
A lateral thoracic spine radiograph shows a wedge-shaped vertebra with anterior beaking. Which congenital condition is this most consistent with?
Correct — C. Anterior beaking of vertebrae is a characteristic finding in mucopolysaccharidoses, particularly Morquio syndrome, resulting from abnormal development and ossification of the vertebral bodies due to lysosomal storage disease.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep A lumbar spine radiograph shows a bilateral defect in the pars interarticularis at L5. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Retrolisthesis
B. Spondylolysis ✓
C. Schmorl's nodes
D. Spina bifida occulta
Correct — B. Spondylolysis is defined as a defect in the pars interarticularis of a vertebra, most commonly affecting L5. When bilateral, it can lead to spondylolisthesis if the vertebra slips forward.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep On a PA chest radiograph, what would suggest the presence of a pneumothorax?
A. Visible pleural line with absence of lung markings peripherally ✓
B. Increased opacity at the lung base
C. Flattening of the hemidiaphragm
D. Widening of the mediastinum
Correct — A. A pneumothorax appears as a dark (radiolucent) area without lung markings between the lung and chest wall. The visible pleural line represents the edge of the collapsed lung, creating a sharp boundary between the aerated lung and the air-filled pleural space.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep What radiographic sign is most characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis in the hands?
A. Subchondral sclerosis
B. Joint space widening
C. Osteophyte formation
D. Periarticular osteopenia ✓
Correct — D. Periarticular osteopenia is an early radiographic finding in rheumatoid arthritis, representing the inflammatory process that leads to bone mineral loss around affected joints before erosions develop.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep A cervical spine radiograph shows a complete anterior displacement of C5 on C6. What is the correct classification of this injury?
A. Grade 2 subluxation
B. Stable compression fracture
C. Grade 3 dislocation ✓
D. Grade 1 sprain
Correct — C. A Grade 3 dislocation in the Allen-Ferguson classification system represents complete anterior displacement of one vertebra on another, indicating severe ligamentous disruption and instability requiring immediate medical attention.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep Which radiographic finding is most consistent with diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)?
A. Disc space narrowing with vacuum phenomenon
B. Flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies ✓
C. Decreased height of multiple vertebral bodies
D. Erosion of the sacroiliac joints
Correct — B. DISH is characterized by flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of at least four contiguous vertebral bodies, resembling candle wax dripping down the spine, with preservation of disc height and no sacroiliac joint erosion.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep On a lumbar spine radiograph, which finding suggests the presence of a compression fracture?
A. Anterior wedging of a vertebral body ✓
B. Narrowing of the intervertebral foramen
C. Calcification of the anterior longitudinal ligament
D. Increased interpedicular distance
Correct — A. Anterior wedging of a vertebral body is the classic appearance of a compression fracture, where the anterior height of the vertebral body is reduced compared to the posterior height, giving it a wedge-shaped appearance.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep What radiographic finding is most suggestive of an osteosarcoma?
A. Well-defined sclerotic margin
B. Ground-glass appearance
C. Soap bubble appearance
D. Sunburst periosteal reaction ✓
Correct — D. Osteosarcoma typically presents with a mixed lytic and blastic lesion with a sunburst periosteal reaction, representing the aggressive nature of this malignant bone tumor and its characteristic new bone formation pattern.
NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep A lateral thoracic spine radiograph shows a wedge-shaped vertebra with anterior beaking. Which congenital condition is this most consistent with?
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Achondroplasia
C. Mucopolysaccharidosis ✓
D. Osteopetrosis
Correct — C. Anterior beaking of vertebrae is a characteristic finding in mucopolysaccharidoses, particularly Morquio syndrome, resulting from abnormal development and ossification of the vertebral bodies due to lysosomal storage disease.
About the NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep test
The NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep measures the Nursing/Medical knowledge you'll actually rely on — tested the way the real exam asks it, not with trick questions. Practising real NBCE Part 3 Chiro Exam Prep-style questions, then sitting a full timed mock exam, is the fastest way to walk in knowing you'll pass.
You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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