TheoryPharmacy Technician
Practice Test
Ace the PTCB or ExCPT with practice questions on drug names, calculations, compounding, and pharmacy law. Pass your pharmacy tech certification exam.
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Pharmacy Technician exam — full Q&A walkthrough
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30 free Pharmacy Technician questions
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Pharmacy Technician
A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. Which mechanism best explains why metformin is preferred as first-line therapy over sulfonylureas for most patients?
Correct — D. Metformin (Glucophage) works primarily by suppressing hepatic gluconeogenesis; it does not stimulate insulin secretion, so it carries minimal hypoglycemia risk and is weight-neutral, making it first-line per ADA guidelines. -
Pharmacy Technician
A prescriber orders warfarin for a patient who is also taking fluconazole for a vaginal yeast infection. What is the expected clinical outcome and the mechanism responsible?
Correct — C. Fluconazole is a potent CYP2C9 inhibitor; since S-warfarin (the more active enantiomer) is primarily metabolized by CYP2C9, co-administration raises warfarin plasma levels and significantly increases bleeding risk. -
Pharmacy Technician
Which of the following brand/generic pairs is correctly matched?
Correct — B. Lipitor is the brand name for atorvastatin, a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin); Norvasc is amlodipine, Synthroid is levothyroxine, and Zestril is lisinopril. -
Pharmacy Technician
A patient receiving chemotherapy develops severe nausea. The oncologist prescribes ondansetron. To which pharmacological class does ondansetron belong?
Correct — B. Ondansetron (Zofran) is a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that blocks serotonin at vagal afferents in the gut and at the chemoreceptor trigger zone, making it highly effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. -
Pharmacy Technician
A pharmacy receives a prescription for lithium carbonate 300 mg three times daily. Which parameter is most critical for a technician to flag for pharmacist counseling regarding patient monitoring?
Correct — A. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index (target serum level 0.6–1.2 mEq/L for maintenance), and toxicity correlates closely with renal clearance and sodium balance; routine serum level, BMP, and thyroid monitoring are mandatory. -
Pharmacy Technician
Which of the following statements correctly describes the dosage form known as a transdermal patch?
Correct — D. Transdermal patches (e.g., fentanyl, nicotine, nitroglycerin) use reservoir or matrix technology to provide controlled systemic drug delivery through the skin, bypassing first-pass hepatic metabolism. -
Pharmacy Technician
Amiodarone is prescribed for a patient who is also on simvastatin 40 mg daily. What is the most significant concern with this combination?
Correct — C. Amiodarone inhibits CYP3A4, the primary enzyme metabolizing simvastatin; elevated simvastatin concentrations dramatically increase the risk of skeletal muscle toxicity including rhabdomyolysis, and the FDA limits simvastatin doses when used with amiodarone. -
Pharmacy Technician
A patient asks a pharmacy technician about the generic name for Proventil HFA. Which answer is correct?
Correct — B. Proventil HFA and Ventolin HFA are brand names for albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) used for acute bronchospasm relief in asthma and COPD. -
Pharmacy Technician
A 68-year-old patient with a sulfa allergy is prescribed furosemide. Which counseling point is most pharmacologically relevant to this allergy history?
Correct — A. Furosemide contains a sulfonamide group; while the clinical significance of cross-reactivity is debated, the prescriber should be aware of the sulfa allergy so an informed benefit-risk decision can be made before dispensing. -
Pharmacy Technician
A patient taking phenytoin for seizures is newly prescribed enteral tube feeds. Which pharmacokinetic interaction is the technician most likely to hear the pharmacist discussing?
Correct — C. Continuous enteral nutrition reduces phenytoin oral bioavailability substantially (mechanism not fully elucidated, possibly protein binding or adsorption to the feeding tube); standard practice is to hold feeds 1–2 hours before and after phenytoin doses and monitor drug levels closely. -
Pharmacy Technician
Which of the following drug classes works by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), and is commonly associated with a dry, persistent cough as a side effect?
Correct — B. ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril, enalapril) block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing aldosterone release; bradykinin accumulation in the lungs causes the class-specific dry cough in up to 15–20% of patients. -
Pharmacy Technician
A patient is prescribed testosterone cypionate 200 mg/mL injection. The dose ordered is 100 mg IM every two weeks. How many milliliters should be drawn up per dose?
Correct — A. Using the ratio: 100 mg ÷ 200 mg/mL = 0.5 mL; testosterone cypionate is an oil-based IM formulation and Schedule III controlled substance under the CSA. -
Pharmacy Technician
A prescriber adds rifampin to a patient's antibiotic regimen who is also on oral contraceptives. What counseling should the pharmacist provide regarding the oral contraceptive?
Correct — A. Rifampin is one of the most potent known CYP450 inducers (3A4, 2C9, and others) and dramatically accelerates metabolism of ethinyl estradiol and progestins, rendering oral contraceptives unreliable; backup non-hormonal contraception is mandatory during and for one month after rifampin therapy. -
Pharmacy Technician
Which of the following medications is classified as a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used specifically for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and is NOT a controlled substance?
Correct — C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) selectively inhibits presynaptic norepinephrine reuptake and is FDA-approved for ADHD but is not a controlled substance, unlike the stimulant options listed, which are DEA Schedule II. -
Pharmacy Technician
A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for digoxin 0.125 mg daily. The patient also picks up clarithromycin for a respiratory infection. Which interaction mechanism is most clinically significant here?
Correct — B. Digoxin is a P-glycoprotein substrate; clarithromycin inhibits P-gp-mediated intestinal and renal digoxin efflux, raising digoxin serum concentrations and increasing the risk of toxicity (bradycardia, heart block, nausea, visual disturbances) in a drug with a very narrow therapeutic index. -
Pharmacy Technician
A patient with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 28 mL/min/1.73 m²) presents a prescription for metformin 1000 mg twice daily. What is the appropriate pharmacy action?
Correct — B. FDA labeling contraindicates metformin initiation when eGFR is below 30 mL/min/1.73 m² and recommends discontinuation if it falls below 30 during therapy, because reduced renal clearance of metformin increases lactic acidosis risk; the pharmacist must intervene before dispensing. -
Pharmacy Technician
A pharmacist receives a prescription for testosterone cypionate 200 mg/mL injection. The patient has no refills remaining and calls asking the pharmacist to verbally authorize an emergency refill. Under federal DEA regulations, which statement is correct?
Correct — C. Schedule III and IV controlled substances may be refilled up to five times within six months of the issue date per DEA regulations, but there is no emergency oral refill provision for these schedules — the refill authority is inherent in the original prescription, not dispensed via a separate emergency mechanism. -
Pharmacy Technician
A DEA registrant pharmacy discovers that 48 tablets of hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg are missing from inventory after a quarterly count. Which DEA form must be submitted, and within what timeframe?
Correct — A. DEA Form 106 (Report of Theft or Significant Loss of Controlled Substances) must be filed as soon as possible after a significant loss is discovered, with copies submitted to the local DEA Diversion field office and local law enforcement; DEA Form 41 is used for destruction, and DEA Form 222 is for ordering Schedule I and II substances. -
Pharmacy Technician
Which of the following controlled substances is classified as Schedule I by the DEA?
Correct — B. Heroin (diacetylmorphine) has no accepted medical use in the United States and a high potential for abuse, placing it in Schedule I; buprenorphine is Schedule III, ketamine is Schedule III, and tramadol is Schedule IV. -
Pharmacy Technician
A long-term care facility (LCF) requests an emergency oral Schedule II prescription for a hospice patient who has run out of morphine sulfate extended-release tablets. Under DEA regulations, which condition is NOT required for this emergency dispensing?
Correct — D. Federal DEA regulations for emergency Schedule II dispensing require limiting quantity to the emergency period, mandate a follow-up written prescription within 7 days, and require the 'Authorization for Emergency Dispensing' notation, but they do NOT require a pre-existing documented patient-prescriber relationship on file at the pharmacy. -
Pharmacy Technician
Under HIPAA's Minimum Necessary Standard, which of the following disclosures by a pharmacy technician would be compliant?
Correct — A. HIPAA's Minimum Necessary Standard includes a Treatment Exception that allows disclosures to other treating providers without patient authorization when necessary for treatment; sharing medication history with an emergency treating physician qualifies, while the other options lack a valid legal basis or patient authorization. -
Pharmacy Technician
The FDA classifies a drug recall as Class II. What does this designation indicate?
Correct — D. An FDA Class II recall applies to situations where use of the product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences, or where the probability of serious harm is remote; Class I is for life-threatening risks, and Class III is for unlikely health harm. -
Pharmacy Technician
A prescriber writes a Schedule III prescription for buprenorphine/naloxone (Suboxone) film for opioid use disorder. The original prescription was issued on March 1. On which date does the prescription become invalid for refills under federal law?
Correct — C. DEA regulations permit Schedule III and IV controlled substances to be refilled up to five times within six months of the issue date; after six months from March 1, the prescription expires and a new prescription is required. -
Pharmacy Technician
A pharmacy technician notices that a prescriber's DEA number on a hydrocodone prescription reads 'BJ4523156.' Applying the DEA number validation algorithm, is this number valid?
Correct — D. To validate a DEA number: add digits 1, 3, and 5 (4+2+1=7); add digits 2, 4, and 6 (5+3+5=13), multiply by 2 (26); sum is 33; the check digit (last digit) should be 3, not 6, so the number is invalid despite the correct format. -
Pharmacy Technician
Which federal agency is primarily responsible for regulating the safety and efficacy of new prescription drugs before they may be marketed in the United States?
Correct — D. The FDA is responsible for approving new drugs for safety and efficacy through the New Drug Application (NDA) process before they can be legally marketed; the DEA regulates controlled substance scheduling and distribution. -
Pharmacy Technician
A compounding pharmacy compounds a batch of morphine sulfate 2 mg/mL oral solution using a non-FDA-approved formula. Under the Drug Quality and Security Act (DQSA), which designation would allow this pharmacy to distribute the compound to hospitals in other states without registering as a manufacturer?
Correct — B. Under DQSA Section 503B, an FDA-registered outsourcing facility may compound drug products without individual patient prescriptions and distribute them interstate to hospitals and clinics, subject to FDA oversight; Section 503A applies to traditional patient-specific compounding pharmacies that cannot distribute wholesale interstate. -
Pharmacy Technician
A patient's spouse calls the pharmacy and asks the technician to confirm whether the patient has picked up a prescription for oxycodone. The patient has not given any authorization. Under HIPAA, what is the most appropriate response?
Correct — A. HIPAA does not automatically grant spousal access to PHI; without documented patient authorization or a court-established personal representative status, the pharmacy must decline to confirm or deny any PHI to the calling spouse. -
Pharmacy Technician
Which of the following drugs is correctly classified as a Schedule V controlled substance?
Correct — C. Schedule V substances contain limited quantities of narcotics such as codeine; cough preparations with less than 200 mg of codeine per 100 mL are classified as Schedule V, while codeine alone and morphine alone are Schedule II, and hydrocodone single-entity products are Schedule II. -
Pharmacy Technician
A pharmacy receives a voluntary recall notice from the manufacturer for a lot of metformin 500 mg tablets due to elevated levels of N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA). The recall is classified as Class I. Which action is NOT part of the pharmacy's required recall response?
Correct — B. DEA Form 106 is used exclusively to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances; a metformin recall is handled through the FDA recall process and MedWatch adverse event reporting — the DEA has no role in non-controlled drug recalls. -
Pharmacy Technician
Under federal law, which element is NOT a required component of a valid controlled substance prescription written by a DEA-registered prescriber?
Correct — B. Federal DEA regulations require the patient's name and address, date of issue, drug name and strength, quantity, directions, prescriber's name/address/DEA number, and prescriber's signature; the NPI number is a CMS billing identifier and is not a DEA-mandated element of a controlled substance prescription.
Pharmacy Technician sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
Pharmacy Technician A prescriber writes a Schedule III prescription for buprenorphine/naloxone (Suboxone) film for opioid use disorder. The original prescription was issued on March 1. On which date does the prescription become invalid for refills under federal law?
A. June 1 (90 days from issue date)
B. March 31 (30 days from issue date)
C. September 1 (6 months from issue date) ✓
D. August 28 (180 days from issue date)
Correct — C. DEA regulations permit Schedule III and IV controlled substances to be refilled up to five times within six months of the issue date; after six months from March 1, the prescription expires and a new prescription is required.
Pharmacy Technician A pharmacy technician notices that a prescriber's DEA number on a hydrocodone prescription reads 'BJ4523156.' Applying the DEA number validation algorithm, is this number valid?
A. Yes, it is valid because it contains nine characters with two letters followed by seven digits.
B. Yes, it is valid because it begins with 'B' followed by the first letter of the prescriber's last name.
C. No, it is invalid because DEA numbers for practitioners always begin with the letter 'A', not 'B'.
D. No, it is invalid because the check digit calculation does not confirm the last digit as '6'. ✓
Correct — D. To validate a DEA number: add digits 1, 3, and 5 (4+2+1=7); add digits 2, 4, and 6 (5+3+5=13), multiply by 2 (26); sum is 33; the check digit (last digit) should be 3, not 6, so the number is invalid despite the correct format.
Pharmacy Technician Which federal agency is primarily responsible for regulating the safety and efficacy of new prescription drugs before they may be marketed in the United States?
A. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
C. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) ✓
Correct — D. The FDA is responsible for approving new drugs for safety and efficacy through the New Drug Application (NDA) process before they can be legally marketed; the DEA regulates controlled substance scheduling and distribution.
Pharmacy Technician A compounding pharmacy compounds a batch of morphine sulfate 2 mg/mL oral solution using a non-FDA-approved formula. Under the Drug Quality and Security Act (DQSA), which designation would allow this pharmacy to distribute the compound to hospitals in other states without registering as a manufacturer?
A. 503A outsourcing facility designation.
B. 503B outsourcing facility designation. ✓
C. A DEA Schedule II bulk manufacturer license.
D. New Drug Application (NDA) holder.
Correct — B. Under DQSA Section 503B, an FDA-registered outsourcing facility may compound drug products without individual patient prescriptions and distribute them interstate to hospitals and clinics, subject to FDA oversight; Section 503A applies to traditional patient-specific compounding pharmacies that cannot distribute wholesale interstate.
Pharmacy Technician A patient's spouse calls the pharmacy and asks the technician to confirm whether the patient has picked up a prescription for oxycodone. The patient has not given any authorization. Under HIPAA, what is the most appropriate response?
A. Decline to confirm or deny any prescription information without patient authorization or a documented patient-established permission. ✓
B. Require the spouse to present a Power of Attorney before providing any information.
C. Provide the information because opioid safety is a public health concern that overrides HIPAA privacy protections.
D. Confirm the pickup status because a spouse is automatically authorized as a personal representative under HIPAA.
Correct — A. HIPAA does not automatically grant spousal access to PHI; without documented patient authorization or a court-established personal representative status, the pharmacy must decline to confirm or deny any PHI to the calling spouse.
Pharmacy Technician Which of the following drugs is correctly classified as a Schedule V controlled substance?
A. Codeine 30 mg tablets (prescribed alone)
B. Morphine sulfate 15 mg oral solution
C. Cough syrup containing less than 200 mg of codeine per 100 mL (e.g., Robitussin AC) ✓
D. Hydrocodone bitartrate 5 mg extended-release tablets
Correct — C. Schedule V substances contain limited quantities of narcotics such as codeine; cough preparations with less than 200 mg of codeine per 100 mL are classified as Schedule V, while codeine alone and morphine alone are Schedule II, and hydrocodone single-entity products are Schedule II.
Pharmacy Technician A pharmacy receives a voluntary recall notice from the manufacturer for a lot of metformin 500 mg tablets due to elevated levels of N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA). The recall is classified as Class I. Which action is NOT part of the pharmacy's required recall response?
A. Quarantine all affected lot-number stock immediately to prevent dispensing.
B. Submit an adverse event report to the DEA using DEA Form 106 within 24 hours. ✓
C. Notify patients who received the recalled lot and advise them per the recall instructions.
D. Return or destroy recalled product per the manufacturer's return authorization instructions.
Correct — B. DEA Form 106 is used exclusively to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances; a metformin recall is handled through the FDA recall process and MedWatch adverse event reporting — the DEA has no role in non-controlled drug recalls.
Pharmacy Technician Under federal law, which element is NOT a required component of a valid controlled substance prescription written by a DEA-registered prescriber?
A. The patient's full name and address.
B. The prescriber's National Provider Identifier (NPI) number. ✓
C. The prescriber's DEA registration number.
D. The date the prescription was issued.
Correct — B. Federal DEA regulations require the patient's name and address, date of issue, drug name and strength, quantity, directions, prescriber's name/address/DEA number, and prescriber's signature; the NPI number is a CMS billing identifier and is not a DEA-mandated element of a controlled substance prescription.
About the Pharmacy Technician test
Study for the pharmacy technician certification exam (PTCB / PTCE) with original practice questions written for this app from the publicly available PTCB knowledge domains. Every question has a clear explanation.
What you get
- Medications and drug classes, federal pharmacy law and controlled substances, sterile and non-sterile compounding, order entry and dispensing, pharmacy calculations, and medication safety and inventory.
- A clear explanation for every question.
- Timed practice tests that mirror the real exam style.
Original & safe
Every question is written for this app from public study material. Nothing is copied from any real exam, test pool or third-party question bank.
You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
How TheoryPractice helps you pass
- Real exam-style questions with instant, detailed explanations
- Full timed mock exams that mirror the real test format
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Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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