TheoryPTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
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PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 exam — full Q&A walkthrough
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30 free PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 questions
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PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required on a medication administration record (MAR)?
Correct — D. Answer: Pharmacy's phone number The pharmacy's phone number is not a piece of information required on a medication administration record (MAR). The following information is required on a MAR: Required Information Patient's identification number Drug's trade or generic name Dosage and administration instructions Date and time of administration Initials or signature of administering personnel -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following medications is indicated only to treat asthma?
Correct — A. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used exclusively for the maintenance treatment of asthma. It is not a rescue medication and is not used for treating other conditions. Albuterol, fluticasone, and ipratropium can be used to treat other respiratory conditions, including COPD. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following best describes Schedule I drugs under the Controlled Substances Act?
Correct — D. Answer: Drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse Schedule I drugs under the Controlled Substances Act are defined as substances that have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use. Examples include heroin and LSD. Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but have accepted medical uses, sometimes with severe restrictions. Schedule III drugs have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to Schedule III and Schedule V drugs have a lower potential for abuse relative to Schedule IV. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
A physician orders the following: Medication Sig Dispense Acetaminophen Elixir Take 4 tsp PO q6h 8 oz How many milliliter(s) will the patient be taking for each dose?
Correct — B. Answer: 20 mL When converting teaspoons (tsp) to milliliters (mL), you need to use the conversion factor that 1 teaspoon is equivalent to 5 milliliters (1 tsp = 5 mL). Thus, 4 tsp × 5 mL/tsp = 20 mL. 1 teaspoon (tsp) = 5 mL -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
For which of the following medications must a patient be advised to avoid consuming grapefruit juice due to potential drug interaction?
Correct — A. Answer: Simvastatin Simvastatin is a statin used to control cholesterol levels. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that can interfere with enzymes (specifically CYP3A4) in the small intestine, leading to higher levels of simvastatin in the bloodstream, which can increase the risk of side effects such as muscle pain and liver damage. Therefore, it is important for patients taking simvastatin to avoid consuming grapefruit juice. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure, and it does not interact with grapefruit juice. Metformin is a medication for type 2 diabetes that regulates blood sugar levels, and it also does not interact with grapefruit juice. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, and it does not have a known interaction with grapefruit juice. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which chronic liver condition is often the result of long-term alcohol abuse?
Correct — D. Answer: Cirrhosis Cirrhosis is a severe liver condition marked by the replacement of healthy liver tissue with scar tissue due to chronic alcohol abuse or other factors. Hepatitis is characterized by liver inflammation caused by viral infection or toxin exposure. It can be acute or chronic. Fatty liver disease occurs when fat builds up in the liver, often related to obesity or alcohol abuse, and can lead to cirrhosis if not managed. Pancreatitis is the inflammation of the pancreas, which can also be linked to chronic alcohol abuse but is not primarily a liver condition. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
What are the key elements of ensuring safe and accurate medication dispensing in a pharmacy?
Correct — C. Answer: Right patient, right medication, right dose, right form, and right documentation The key elements to ensuring safe and accurate medication dispensing in a pharmacy include verifying the right patient, ensuring the right medication, confirming the right dose, choosing the right form, and keeping proper documentation. These measures help ensure that the correct patient receives the correct medication in the correct manner. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the essential elements required for safe and accurate medication dispensing. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following classes of drugs may decrease the efficacy of anticoagulants?
Correct — B. Answer: Antibiotics Antibiotics may decrease the efficacy of anticoagulants. Other drug classes that interact with anticoagulants include antifungals, anticonvulsants, cardiovascular drugs, and certain over-the-counter medications. Antihistamines, NSAIDs, and antidepressants are not known to decrease the efficacy of anticoagulants. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following antibiotics should be taken on an empty stomach?
Correct — A. Answer: Azithromycin Azithromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, should be taken on an empty stomach. It is best absorbed when taken at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. In contrast, amoxicillin, cephalexin, and doxycycline can be taken with or without food. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat high blood pressure. When is it best for a patient to take losartan?
Correct — D. Answer: In the morning It is generally recommended for patients to take losartan in the morning. This is due to its blood pressure-lowering effects, which can help manage blood pressure during the day. It is not best for patients to take losartan at night, before meals, or after meals. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following conditions would be treated with omeprazole?
Correct — C. Answer: Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) Omeprazole is a proton-pump inhibitor used to treat conditions like GERD, heartburn, and peptic ulcers. It works by reducing the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Other medications used to treat GERD include esomeprazole, lansoprazole, and pantoprazole. Omeprazole is not used to treat allergies, asthma, or diabetes. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following medications has its hypotensive effects potentially increased when taken alongside certain antifungal drugs?
Correct — D. Answer: Losartan The hypotensive effects of losartan can be increased when administered with antifungal medications such as ketoconazole or itraconazole. This combination can lead to enhanced lowering of blood pressure, possibly causing hypotension. Metformin and aspirin are not significantly affected by antifungal drugs. Atorvastatin's interaction with antifungals is related more to liver enzyme alterations rather than blood pressure effects. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
If an oral medication intended for diabetes management was mistakenly injected as an intravenous infusion, what type of error would it be?
Correct — B. Answer: Administration technique error If an oral medication intended for diabetes management was mistakenly injected as an intravenous infusion, it would be considered an administration technique error, as the error occurred during the administration of the medication. Prescribing errors occur while the prescriber is writing the prescription, and dispensing errors (judgment and mechanical) occur while the pharmacy is filling the prescription. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following is an example of an antihypertensive agent?
Correct — B. Correct answer: Lisinopril Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure (hypertension). Other antihypertensive agents include losartan, atenolol, and amlodipine. Adderall is a combination of amphetamine and dextroamphetamine and is classified as a stimulant for treating ADHD. Lipitor is the brand name for atorvastatin and is classified as a statin, used to lower cholesterol. Synthroid is the brand name for levothyroxine and is classified as a thyroid hormone for treating hypothyroidism. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following medications is typically used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Correct — D. Answer: Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs). Loperamide is an anti-diarrheal medication, fluconazole is an antifungal, and lisinopril is an antihypertensive. None of these are used to treat UTIs. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following medications is known to cause dizziness and should be used cautiously in patients with a history of fainting?
Correct — A. Answer: Metoprolol Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause dizziness, bradycardia, fatigue, and hypotension. Caution should be exercised in patients with a history of fainting or orthostatic hypotension. Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory drug that does not typically cause dizziness. Metformin is an oral antidiabetic medication, and Loratadine is an antihistamine; neither is known for causing dizziness. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which drug classification uses the suffix "–azole"?
Correct — D. Answer: Antifungal Antifungal is the drug class that uses the suffix "–azole." Antifungals are used to treat fungal infections. This drug class includes fluconazole, ketoconazole, itraconazole, and voriconazole. The suffix "–cillin" is used for penicillin antibiotics. The suffix "–vir" is used for antiviral agents, and the suffix "–amine" often appears in antihistamines. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following substances is categorized as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and severe psychological or physical dependence?
Correct — C. Answer: Oxycodone Schedule II controlled substances are drugs that have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Oxycodone is classified as a Schedule II drug. Lyrica (pregabalin) is classified as a Schedule V drug, meaning it has a lower potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedules I-IV. Ultram (tramadol) is classified as a Schedule IV drug, indicating a potential for abuse but less than that of Schedule III substances. Ambien (zolpidem) is also a Schedule IV drug, reflecting a reduced potential for abuse and dependence compared to Schedule II drugs. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which agency is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act and regulating the distribution of controlled substances in the United States?
Correct — A. Answer: Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) The DEA is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act and regulating the distribution of controlled substances in the United States. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for protecting public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of drugs, biological products, and medical devices. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) focuses on public health and the control and prevention of diseases, injuries, and disabilities. The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) sets standards for the quality, purity, strength, and consistency of medicines. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following organizations is responsible for regulating the authorization of pharmacy technicians in a given state?
Correct — C. Answer: State Board of Pharmacy The state board of pharmacy is responsible for regulating the authorization and licensing of pharmacy technicians within each state. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) oversees drug safety and effectiveness on a national level. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) regulates controlled substances and their distribution. The American Pharmacists Association (APhA) is a professional organization representing pharmacists but does not regulate state-level pharmacy practices. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
You receive an order for a medication that needs to be stored at 5°C. What is this temperature in Fahrenheit?
Correct — B. Answer: 41°F To solve, know the following formula: $$F = \frac{9C}{5} + 32$$ Replace the C with 5: $$F = \frac{9(5)}{5} + 32$$ Simplify the fraction: $$F = 9 + 32$$ Add 32 to 9: $$F = 41$$ or 41°F -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following is not a necessary step when preparing a medication order in a pharmacy?
Correct — C. Answer: Checking the patient's insurance coverage Although confirming insurance coverage is important for billing purposes, it is not a necessary step directly involved in the preparation of a medication order. Essential steps include verifying the patient's medication history, reviewing the medication order for possible drug interactions, and confirming the dosage form and strength of the medication. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following criteria does not determine whether a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) is required for a medication?
Correct — B. Answer: The cost of the medication The cost of a medication is not a determining factor for requiring a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS). REMS are mandated by the FDA for certain medications that have serious safety concerns, to ensure that the benefits of the medication outweigh the risks. Specific conditions or requirements that make REMS necessary are evaluated by the FDA to protect patient safety. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
In what formulation is the medication Azithromycin typically found?
Correct — A. Answer: Oral suspension Azithromycin, an antibiotic used to treat various types of infections, is often found in multiple formulations. However, it is commonly provided as an oral suspension to facilitate dosing in children or individuals who have difficulty swallowing tablets or capsules. Tablets and capsules are also available but are not as commonly prescribed for pediatric use. Topical gel formulations are not typical for Azithromycin as it is mainly used in oral form to treat infections. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
What is the maximum allowable beyond-use-date (BUD) for nonsterile, aqueous oral formulations?
Correct — D. Answer: 14 days refrigerated Nonsterile, aqueous oral formulations have a maximum BUD of 14 days when refrigerated to ensure the product's safety and effectiveness. Nonsterile nonaqueous products have a maximum BUD of 6 months, while topical or mucosal liquid products that contain water have a maximum BUD of 30 days. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
If a prescriber allows a generic substitution but the pharmacy still dispenses the brand name product because it is cheaper, which DAW code should be used?
Correct — A. Answer: DAW 7 The code DAW 7 is used when a prescriber allows a generic substitution but the pharmacy dispenses the brand name product because it is cheaper. The code DAW 1 is used when a prescriber requests a brand name product to be dispensed. DAW 2 is used when a patient requests a brand name product to be dispensed. DAW 4 is used when a pharmacy does not have a generic drug in stock and dispenses the brand name product instead. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
USP <800> defines specific standards for handling hazardous drugs in healthcare settings to ensure worker safety. According to these standards, what is the maximum allowable concentration of a hazardous drug in an ISO Class 7 environment?
Correct — C. Answer: Not more than 352,000 particles According to USP <800>, to ensure the safety of healthcare workers handling hazardous drugs, specific particle limits are established for different ISO classifications of cleanrooms. For an ISO Class 7 environment, the maximum allowable concentration of airborne particles is 352,000 particles per cubic meter of air. ISO Class 4: Not more than 352 particles ISO Class 5: Not more than 3520 particles ISO Class 7: Not more than 352,000 particles ISO Class 8: Not more than 3,520,000 particles -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following statements regarding prescription label requirements is not accurate?
Correct — C. Answer: The pharmacy technician is responsible for approving the final content of the prescription label. The final approval of the content on the prescription label must be done by a licensed pharmacist, not a pharmacy technician. Prescription labels are required to include specific information such as the patient's name, drug name, dosage instructions, and the pharmacy's contact information. Labels for controlled substances also need to include a warning statement about the risks of transferring the medication to others, as per legal requirements. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
In a pharmacy, labels for prescriptions must include certain information to ensure patient safety. Which of the following is NOT typically required on a prescription label?
Correct — C. Answer: Prescriber's address Labels for prescriptions typically include the patient's name, medication dosage, and expiration date, but the prescriber's address is not generally required. Including this specific information helps ensure the correct medication is administered to the intended patient, while the prescriber's identity is verified by name and license number. -
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20
Which of the following tasks are pharmacy technicians not authorized to perform when ensuring proper medication storage?
Correct — B. Answer: Determining proper storage conditions for a new medication Determining the proper storage conditions for new medications is within a pharmacist's scope of practice. Pharmacy technicians can assist with medication storage by placing medications in appropriate storage areas, organizing medications by expiration date, and maintaining inventory records.
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 sample questions
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PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 Which of the following criteria does not determine whether a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) is required for a medication?
A. Specific conditions exist that make REMS necessary
B. The cost of the medication ✓
C. The medication has serious safety concerns
D. Ensuring the benefits of the medication outweigh the risks
Correct — B. Answer: The cost of the medication The cost of a medication is not a determining factor for requiring a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS). REMS are mandated by the FDA for certain medications that have serious safety concerns, to ensure that the benefits of the medication outweigh the risks. Specific conditions or requirements that make REMS necessary are evaluated by the FDA to protect patient safety.
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 In what formulation is the medication Azithromycin typically found?
A. Oral suspension ✓
B. Tablet
C. Capsule
D. Topical gel
Correct — A. Answer: Oral suspension Azithromycin, an antibiotic used to treat various types of infections, is often found in multiple formulations. However, it is commonly provided as an oral suspension to facilitate dosing in children or individuals who have difficulty swallowing tablets or capsules. Tablets and capsules are also available but are not as commonly prescribed for pediatric use. Topical gel formulations are not typical for Azithromycin as it is mainly used in oral form to treat infections.
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 What is the maximum allowable beyond-use-date (BUD) for nonsterile, aqueous oral formulations?
A. 6 months
B. 30 days
C. 12 months
D. 14 days refrigerated ✓
Correct — D. Answer: 14 days refrigerated Nonsterile, aqueous oral formulations have a maximum BUD of 14 days when refrigerated to ensure the product's safety and effectiveness. Nonsterile nonaqueous products have a maximum BUD of 6 months, while topical or mucosal liquid products that contain water have a maximum BUD of 30 days.
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 If a prescriber allows a generic substitution but the pharmacy still dispenses the brand name product because it is cheaper, which DAW code should be used?
A. DAW 7 ✓
B. DAW 1
C. DAW 2
D. DAW 4
Correct — A. Answer: DAW 7 The code DAW 7 is used when a prescriber allows a generic substitution but the pharmacy dispenses the brand name product because it is cheaper. The code DAW 1 is used when a prescriber requests a brand name product to be dispensed. DAW 2 is used when a patient requests a brand name product to be dispensed. DAW 4 is used when a pharmacy does not have a generic drug in stock and dispenses the brand name product instead.
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 USP <800> defines specific standards for handling hazardous drugs in healthcare settings to ensure worker safety. According to these standards, what is the maximum allowable concentration of a hazardous drug in an ISO Class 7 environment?
A. Not more than 3520 particles
B. Not more than 3,520,000 particles
C. Not more than 352,000 particles ✓
D. Not more than 352 particles
Correct — C. Answer: Not more than 352,000 particles According to USP <800>, to ensure the safety of healthcare workers handling hazardous drugs, specific particle limits are established for different ISO classifications of cleanrooms. For an ISO Class 7 environment, the maximum allowable concentration of airborne particles is 352,000 particles per cubic meter of air. ISO Class 4: Not more than 352 particles ISO Class 5: Not more than 3520 particles ISO Class 7: Not more than 352,000 particles ISO Class 8: Not more than 3,520,000 particles
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 Which of the following statements regarding prescription label requirements is not accurate?
A. The prescription label must display the pharmacy's contact information.
B. Labels for controlled substances must include a warning statement about the risks of transferring the medication.
C. The pharmacy technician is responsible for approving the final content of the prescription label. ✓
D. The prescription label must include the patient's name, drug name, and dosage instructions.
Correct — C. Answer: The pharmacy technician is responsible for approving the final content of the prescription label. The final approval of the content on the prescription label must be done by a licensed pharmacist, not a pharmacy technician. Prescription labels are required to include specific information such as the patient's name, drug name, dosage instructions, and the pharmacy's contact information. Labels for controlled substances also need to include a warning statement about the risks of transferring the medication to others, as per legal requirements.
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 In a pharmacy, labels for prescriptions must include certain information to ensure patient safety. Which of the following is NOT typically required on a prescription label?
A. Medication dosage
B. Expiration date
C. Prescriber's address ✓
D. Patient's name
Correct — C. Answer: Prescriber's address Labels for prescriptions typically include the patient's name, medication dosage, and expiration date, but the prescriber's address is not generally required. Including this specific information helps ensure the correct medication is administered to the intended patient, while the prescriber's identity is verified by name and license number.
PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 Which of the following tasks are pharmacy technicians not authorized to perform when ensuring proper medication storage?
A. Maintaining inventory records of stored medications
B. Determining proper storage conditions for a new medication ✓
C. Placing medications in appropriate storage areas
D. Organizing medications by expiration date
Correct — B. Answer: Determining proper storage conditions for a new medication Determining the proper storage conditions for new medications is within a pharmacist's scope of practice. Pharmacy technicians can assist with medication storage by placing medications in appropriate storage areas, organizing medications by expiration date, and maintaining inventory records.
About the PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 test
Built around Nursing/Medical, this PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 question bank mirrors the real exam format instead of guessing at trick questions. Work through the free sample, read every explanation, then move on to full timed mock exams once you're ready.
You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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