Respiratory TMC
Practice Test
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Respiratory TMC exam — full Q&A walkthrough
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30 free Respiratory TMC questions
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Patient Assessment
Coarse, low-pitched bubbling sounds heard over the large airways that often clear with coughing are best described as:
Correct — B. Coarse crackles, sometimes called rhonchi, arise from secretions in larger airways and frequently change or clear after the patient coughs. -
Patient Assessment
A high-pitched, musical, continuous sound heard on expiration is most consistent with:
Correct — C. Wheezes are continuous, high-pitched musical sounds produced by airflow through narrowed airways, classically heard in bronchospasm. -
Patient Assessment
A harsh, high-pitched sound heard over the upper airway during inspiration in a patient recently extubated suggests:
Correct — D. Inspiratory stridor after extubation indicates upper-airway narrowing, commonly from laryngeal edema, and warrants prompt evaluation. -
Patient Assessment
A bluish discoloration of the lips and oral mucosa indicating reduced oxygenation is termed:
Correct — A. Central cyanosis reflects desaturated hemoglobin in mucous membranes and signals significant hypoxemia, unlike peripheral cyanosis from poor perfusion. -
Patient Assessment
Clubbing of the fingers in a patient with chronic lung disease most directly reflects:
Correct — B. Digital clubbing develops with long-standing hypoxemia and chronic conditions such as bronchiectasis, interstitial fibrosis, and cyanotic heart disease. -
Patient Assessment
Increased tactile fremitus over a region of the chest most likely indicates:
Correct — C. Consolidated lung transmits vibration better than air-filled lung, so fremitus increases; air or fluid between the lung and chest wall decreases it. -
Patient Assessment
A hyperresonant percussion note over one hemithorax with absent breath sounds suggests:
Correct — A. Trapped pleural air produces hyperresonance with diminished or absent breath sounds; fluid or consolidation instead produces dullness. -
Patient Assessment
Which respiratory rate in an adult is generally classified as tachypnea?
Correct — B. Normal adult respiratory rate is about 12-20 breaths/min; a rate above 20, such as 26, is tachypnea. -
Patient Assessment
A pulse oximeter reading may be falsely unreliable in a patient with:
Correct — C. Standard pulse oximetry cannot distinguish carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin, so SpO2 reads falsely high in CO poisoning; co-oximetry is required. -
Patient Assessment
A sudden drop in end-tidal CO2 (PetCO2) toward zero in a ventilated patient most urgently suggests:
Correct — D. An abrupt fall of PetCO2 to near zero signals no CO2 reaching the detector, typically from circuit disconnection, esophageal tube, or cardiac arrest. -
Patient Assessment
A capnogram showing a progressively rising baseline and increasing PetCO2 with a normal-shaped waveform most likely indicates:
Correct — B. Rising PetCO2 with a normal waveform indicates CO2 accumulation from hypoventilation or rebreathing, not a sudden mechanical loss of signal. -
Patient Assessment
On a chest radiograph, the tip of a properly placed endotracheal tube should sit approximately:
Correct — C. The ETT tip is ideally 2-6 cm (about 4 cm) above the carina with the head in neutral position to avoid mainstem intubation or accidental extubation. -
Patient Assessment
A chest film showing tracheal shift TOWARD the affected side with volume loss is most consistent with:
Correct — A. Atelectasis causes volume loss that pulls the trachea and mediastinum toward the affected side; tension pneumothorax and large effusions push them away. -
Patient Assessment
Thick, foul-smelling, greenish-yellow sputum most likely indicates:
Correct — C. Purulent, malodorous, colored sputum suggests bacterial infection; frothy pink sputum suggests pulmonary edema and clear/white suggests viral or normal secretions. -
Patient Assessment
Frothy, pink-tinged sputum in an acutely dyspneic patient most strongly suggests:
Correct — B. Pink, frothy secretions reflect alveolar fluid mixed with blood, the classic finding in cardiogenic pulmonary edema. -
Patient Assessment
Use of the sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles during quiet breathing indicates:
Correct — D. Recruitment of accessory muscles at rest signals increased work of breathing and impending respiratory distress. -
Patient Assessment
A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 or lower in a patient with respiratory compromise most importantly indicates:
Correct — B. A GCS of 8 or below generally signals loss of protective airway reflexes, prompting consideration of intubation to secure the airway. -
Patient Assessment
A patient has an FEV1/FVC ratio of 60% with reduced FEV1. This pattern is characteristic of:
Correct — A. A reduced FEV1/FVC ratio (below ~70%) defines an obstructive defect; restrictive disease typically preserves or raises the ratio while lowering volumes. -
Patient Assessment
A patient has a normal FEV1/FVC ratio but a markedly reduced FVC and total lung capacity. This indicates:
Correct — C. Proportional reduction in volumes with a preserved or elevated FEV1/FVC ratio and low TLC defines a restrictive pattern. -
Patient Assessment
During a six-minute walk test, the primary parameter monitored to assess exercise desaturation is:
Correct — B. The six-minute walk test tracks SpO2 (and distance/symptoms) to detect exertional desaturation and titrate oxygen needs. -
Patient Assessment
A loud pulmonic component of the second heart sound (P2) in a chronic lung disease patient most suggests:
Correct — C. An accentuated P2 reflects elevated pulmonary artery pressure, a common consequence of chronic hypoxemic lung disease (cor pulmonale). -
Patient Assessment
Bilateral dependent pitting edema, jugular venous distension, and hepatomegaly in a COPD patient suggest:
Correct — A. Right ventricular failure from chronic lung disease produces systemic venous congestion: peripheral edema, JVD, and hepatic enlargement. -
Patient Assessment
An effective cough requires all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct — D. A productive cough needs a deep breath, glottic closure to build pressure, and a forceful expulsion; supplemental oxygen is not a requirement for the cough mechanism. -
Patient Assessment
Pack-years are calculated by multiplying packs smoked per day by:
Correct — B. Pack-years equal packs per day multiplied by years smoked, quantifying cumulative tobacco exposure. -
Patient Assessment
A patient smoked 2 packs per day for 20 years. The smoking history is:
Correct — C. Pack-years = packs/day x years = 2 x 20 = 40 pack-years. -
Patient Assessment
A patient with an SpO2 of 88% on room air most likely has a PaO2 of approximately:
Correct — A. On the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, an SaO2 near 90% corresponds to a PaO2 of about 60 mm Hg; 88% corresponds to roughly 55-58 mm Hg. -
Patient Assessment
A cyclic crescendo-decrescendo breathing pattern alternating with periods of apnea is called:
Correct — C. Cheyne-Stokes respiration features gradually increasing then decreasing tidal volumes separated by apnea, often seen in heart failure or CNS injury. -
Patient Assessment
Deep, rapid, labored breathing seen in severe metabolic acidosis (e.g., diabetic ketoacidosis) is termed:
Correct — A. Kussmaul breathing is the deep, fast respiratory pattern that compensates for metabolic acidosis by blowing off CO2. -
Patient Assessment
Capillary refill that takes longer than 3 seconds most directly indicates:
Correct — D. Delayed capillary refill (over ~2-3 seconds) suggests reduced peripheral perfusion from hypovolemia, shock, or vasoconstriction. -
Patient Assessment
A rapid shallow breathing index (f/Vt) of 130 during a spontaneous breathing trial predicts:
Correct — B. An f/Vt above ~105 indicates rapid shallow breathing and predicts a high likelihood of weaning failure; lower values predict success.
Respiratory TMC sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
Patient Assessment A grating, leathery sound heard during both inspiration and expiration that does not clear with coughing is a:
A. Pleural friction rub ✓
B. Wheeze
C. Fine crackle
D. Rhonchus
Correct — A. A pleural friction rub results from inflamed pleural surfaces rubbing together and persists through both respiratory phases, unaffected by coughing.
ABG Interpretation The normal range for arterial pH is approximately:
A. 7.25-7.30
B. 7.35-7.45 ✓
C. 7.45-7.55
D. 7.10-7.20
Correct — B. Normal arterial pH is 7.35-7.45; values below indicate acidemia and above indicate alkalemia.
Oxygen & Aerosol Therapy A standard adult nasal cannula at 2 L/min delivers an approximate FiO2 of:
A. 0.21
B. 0.28 ✓
C. 0.40
D. 0.60
Correct — B. Each liter per minute of nasal cannula flow adds roughly 4% to FiO2 above room air, so 2 L/min yields about 28%.
Airway Management A common endotracheal tube internal diameter for an average adult woman is approximately:
A. 5.0 mm
B. 7.0-7.5 mm ✓
C. 9.0 mm
D. 4.0 mm
Correct — B. Average adult women are typically intubated with a 7.0-7.5 mm ID tube; men often use 7.5-8.5 mm.
Mechanical Ventilation In assist-control (A/C) ventilation, every breath the patient triggers:
A. Receives only partial support
B. Is delivered at the set tidal volume or pressure ✓
C. Is unsupported
D. Increases dead space only
Correct — B. In A/C, both machine-triggered and patient-triggered breaths receive full set support, ensuring a guaranteed level of ventilation.
Equipment The cylinder factor used to calculate remaining oxygen duration for an E cylinder is approximately:
A. 0.16 L/psig
B. 0.28 L/psig ✓
C. 3.14 L/psig
D. 1.56 L/psig
Correct — B. An E cylinder has a factor of about 0.28 L per psig; multiplying gauge pressure by the factor and dividing by flow gives the remaining minutes.
Respiratory Pharmacology Albuterol is classified as a:
A. Short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) ✓
B. Anticholinergic
C. Inhaled corticosteroid
D. Long-acting beta agonist
Correct — A. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that relaxes airway smooth muscle for quick bronchodilation, making it a rescue medication.
Emergencies & Infection Control The recommended chest compression rate for adult CPR is:
A. 60-80 per minute
B. 100-120 per minute ✓
C. 140-160 per minute
D. 40-60 per minute
Correct — B. High-quality adult CPR uses a compression rate of 100-120 per minute at a depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) with full recoil.
About the Respiratory TMC test
Pass your Respiratory TMC exam with confidence. Respiratory TMC Exam Prep gives you hundreds of realistic practice questions with a clear, detailed explanation for every answer.
Why this app
- Hundreds of exam-style questions, written and reviewed for accuracy
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Whether it’s your first attempt or a retake, our questions and explanations help you master the material and pass on your first try.
You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
How TheoryPractice helps you pass
- Real exam-style questions with instant, detailed explanations
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- Flashcards & quiz modes from the same question bank
- Progress tracking so you know exactly when you're ready
Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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