Vet Tech VTNE
Practice Test
Practice for the Vet Tech VTNE with realistic exam questions, full explanations, timed mock exams and progress tracking — fully offline.
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Vet Tech VTNE exam — full Q&A walkthrough
Every question read aloud with the answer explained. Play it on your commute, then test yourself.
30 free Vet Tech VTNE questions
Sampled across every topic area — not just the first page. Try them as a quiz or flip them as flashcards.
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Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A dog weighs 20 kg and is to receive a drug dosed at 5 mg/kg. How many total milligrams should be given?
Correct — B. Dose equals body weight times the per-kilogram dose: 20 kg x 5 mg/kg = 100 mg. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A drug is supplied at 50 mg/mL. To deliver 100 mg, what volume should be drawn up?
Correct — C. Volume equals dose divided by concentration: 100 mg / 50 mg/mL = 2.0 mL. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Which schedule of controlled drug, under the U.S. Controlled Substances Act, has NO accepted medical use and the highest abuse potential?
Correct — A. Schedule I substances have no currently accepted medical use and the highest abuse potential, so they are not used clinically in veterinary practice. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A clinic stocks ketamine and hydromorphone. Under DEA rules, these are most commonly classified in which schedule?
Correct — C. Ketamine is a Schedule III drug and hydromorphone is a Schedule II opioid; both require secure storage and a usage log. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Amoxicillin belongs to which antibiotic class?
Correct — A. Amoxicillin is a beta-lactam penicillin that inhibits bacterial cell-wall synthesis. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Furosemide is best described as which type of drug?
Correct — B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic acting on the loop of Henle; it is widely used to reduce pulmonary edema in congestive heart failure. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Why are NSAIDs such as carprofen generally avoided in patients that are dehydrated or hypotensive?
Correct — D. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins that maintain renal blood flow; in a volume-depleted patient this can precipitate acute kidney injury. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
The abbreviation 'SID' on a prescription means the drug is given how often?
Correct — C. SID (semel in die) means once daily; BID is twice, TID three times, and QID four times daily. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Naloxone is administered to reverse the effects of which drug class?
Correct — A. Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist; it displaces opioids from receptors to reverse respiratory depression and sedation. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Atipamezole is the specific reversal agent for which class of sedative?
Correct — B. Atipamezole is an alpha-2 antagonist used to reverse dexmedetomidine and xylazine. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A 10 kg dog needs a drug at 2.2 mg/kg. The drug concentration is 11 mg/mL. What volume is needed?
Correct — B. Dose = 10 x 2.2 = 22 mg; volume = 22 mg / 11 mg/mL = 2.0 mL. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A 2 percent lidocaine solution contains how many milligrams of lidocaine per milliliter?
Correct — C. A percent solution is grams per 100 mL; 2 percent = 2 g/100 mL = 20 mg/mL. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Which storage practice is correct for most reconstituted injectable antibiotics unless the label states otherwise?
Correct — D. Most reconstituted injectables are refrigerated and discarded after the manufacturer's stated stability period to prevent degradation and contamination. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Apomorphine is most appropriately used in the dog for which purpose?
Correct — A. Apomorphine is a centrally acting emetic used in dogs to induce vomiting shortly after ingestion of a non-caustic toxin. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Why should an emetic generally NOT be given to a patient that ingested a caustic or corrosive substance?
Correct — B. Inducing emesis brings the corrosive back up the esophagus, risking additional chemical burns and aspiration; decontamination strategy must change. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
When drawing up insulin, why is it important to use the syringe matched to the insulin concentration (for example U-40 syringe with U-40 insulin)?
Correct — C. U-40 and U-100 syringes are calibrated to their concentration; using the wrong syringe delivers an incorrect insulin dose that can cause hypo- or hyperglycemia. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Combining an NSAID with a corticosteroid most increases the risk of which adverse effect?
Correct — A. Both drug classes impair gastric mucosal protection, and concurrent use markedly raises the risk of GI ulceration and bleeding. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Which drug class does fenbendazole belong to?
Correct — B. Fenbendazole is a benzimidazole anthelmintic used to treat various gastrointestinal nematodes. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Certain herding breeds such as Collies may have severe reactions to ivermectin because of a mutation affecting which transporter?
Correct — D. An MDR1 (ABCB1) mutation reduces the blood-brain barrier pump, allowing ivermectin into the CNS and causing neurotoxicity in susceptible breeds. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
When compounding or reconstituting a hazardous chemotherapy drug, which is the most appropriate safety measure?
Correct — C. Cytotoxic drugs require preparation in a biological safety cabinet with chemotherapy gloves, gown, and closed-system devices to protect personnel. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A dispensed prescription label must legally include all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct — A. Required label elements include drug identity, strength, directions, patient/owner, and clinic information; the clinic's purchase cost is not a labeling requirement. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Which route generally provides 100 percent bioavailability because the drug enters the circulation directly?
Correct — B. Intravenous administration bypasses absorption barriers, so by definition the full dose reaches systemic circulation. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A drug is to run as a CRI at 5 mcg/kg/min in a 10 kg dog. How many micrograms are delivered per minute?
Correct — C. Rate equals dose times weight: 5 mcg/kg/min x 10 kg = 50 mcg/min. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Diphenhydramine is classified primarily as which type of drug?
Correct — A. Diphenhydramine is an H1-antihistamine used for allergic reactions and as a mild sedative/antiemetic adjunct. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Long-term high-dose glucocorticoid therapy in dogs can produce a syndrome resembling which endocrine disease?
Correct — D. Excess exogenous corticosteroid mimics hyperadrenocorticism (iatrogenic Cushing's), with signs such as polyuria, polydipsia, and a pot-bellied appearance. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
What is the correct action for a drug found past its expiration date?
Correct — B. Expired drugs may lose potency or become unsafe and must be pulled and disposed of according to regulations, never administered. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
How many grams of dextrose are in 1 liter of a 5 percent dextrose solution?
Correct — C. 5 percent means 5 g per 100 mL; in 1000 mL that is 50 g of dextrose. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Maropitant is most commonly used for which purpose?
Correct — A. Maropitant is an NK-1 receptor antagonist antiemetic effective against both central and peripheral causes of vomiting. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
Why might a loading dose of a drug be larger than the maintenance dose?
Correct — B. A loading dose quickly fills the volume of distribution to reach therapeutic levels, after which smaller maintenance doses sustain them. -
Pharmacology & Pharmacy
A cat weighs 4 kg and the drug dose is 10 mg/kg. The tablet strength is 20 mg. How many tablets are needed per dose?
Correct — D. Dose = 4 x 10 = 40 mg; 40 mg / 20 mg per tablet = 2 tablets.
Vet Tech VTNE sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
Pharmacology & Pharmacy Compared with subcutaneous injection, intramuscular injection of the same drug generally results in:
A. Slower onset always
B. Faster absorption due to greater blood supply ✓
C. No absorption
D. Identical onset
Correct — B. Muscle is more vascular than subcutaneous tissue, so IM drugs are typically absorbed faster than SQ in most circumstances.
Anesthesia & Analgesia A patient classified as ASA Physical Status III is best described as having:
A. No disease, healthy
B. Mild systemic disease
C. Severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating ✓
D. A moribund condition unlikely to survive
Correct — C. ASA III denotes severe systemic disease; ASA I is healthy, II is mild disease, IV is severe life-threatening disease, and V is moribund.
Surgical Nursing Which method uses pressurized saturated steam to sterilize surgical instruments?
A. Cold chemical soak
B. Autoclave (steam under pressure) ✓
C. Ultrasonic cleaner
D. Ultraviolet light
Correct — B. An autoclave sterilizes by saturated steam under pressure, typically reaching about 121 degrees C, killing microbes and spores.
Dentistry How many permanent (adult) teeth does a typical dog have?
A. 30
B. 42 ✓
C. 28
D. 20
Correct — B. The adult dog has 42 permanent teeth; the adult cat has 30.
Laboratory Procedures The PCV (packed cell volume) measures:
A. The number of platelets
B. The percentage of blood volume made up of red blood cells ✓
C. Blood glucose
D. White cell count
Correct — B. PCV, obtained after centrifuging a microhematocrit tube, is the percentage of whole blood occupied by red blood cells and screens for anemia or polycythemia.
Diagnostic Imaging The most important principle for limiting personnel radiation exposure is summarized as ALARA, which stands for:
A. Always Look At Radiographs Again
B. As Low As Reasonably Achievable ✓
C. Avoid Lead And Radiation Always
D. Add Lead Around Radiology Area
Correct — B. ALARA means keeping radiation exposure As Low As Reasonably Achievable, achieved through time, distance, and shielding.
Animal Nursing & Care The normal rectal temperature range for a healthy dog is approximately:
A. 95 to 98 degrees F
B. 100 to 102.5 degrees F ✓
C. 104 to 106 degrees F
D. 90 to 95 degrees F
Correct — B. A normal canine rectal temperature is about 100 to 102.5 degrees F (37.8 to 39.2 degrees C); higher suggests fever or hyperthermia.
Emergency & Critical Care During CPR in a medium dog, chest compressions should be delivered at a rate of approximately:
A. 40 to 60 per minute
B. 100 to 120 per minute ✓
C. 160 to 180 per minute
D. 20 per minute
Correct — B. Current RECOVER CPR guidelines recommend a compression rate of 100 to 120 per minute for dogs and cats.
About the Vet Tech VTNE test
Built around Nursing/Medical, this Vet Tech VTNE question bank mirrors the real exam format instead of guessing at trick questions. Work through the free sample, read every explanation, then move on to full timed mock exams once you're ready.
You will be tested on
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
How TheoryPractice helps you pass
- Real exam-style questions with instant, detailed explanations
- Full timed mock exams that mirror the real test format
- Flashcards & quiz modes from the same question bank
- Progress tracking so you know exactly when you're ready
Topics in this question bank
Safe and effective care environment
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychosocial and physiological integrity
Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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