CCP-C Critical Care Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q1A 54-year-old female is diagnosed with an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed due to a duodenal ulcer. The patient presents with hematemesis and melena. Vital signs are BP 95/60, P 120, R 22, and $$SpO_{2}$$ 94%. After initial stabilization, which of the following medications is most appropriate to reduce gastric acid secretion and stabilize the ulcer?
✓ Correct answer: D. Proton pump inhibitors
Proton pump inhibitors are the first-line treatment for ulcer-related gastrointestinal bleeding as they help reduce gastric acid secretion, promoting ulcer healing. Antacids provide symptomatic relief but do not address the underlying acid secretion effectively. H2-receptor antagonists are less effective than proton pump inhibitors in treating acute gastrointestinal bleeding from ulcers. Sucralfate acts as a protective barrier at the ulcer site but does not significantly reduce acid secretion.
Q2A patient with extensive third-degree burns has undergone a fasciotomy due to developing compartment syndrome in the forearm. Which of the following is the most critical aspect when managing this patient post-fasciotomy to prevent further complications?
✓ Correct answer: B. Monitoring for adequate distal perfusion and compartment pressure relief
Answer: Monitoring for adequate distal perfusion and compartment pressure relief Following a fasciotomy, it's crucial to monitor the affected limb for adequate perfusion and ensure that the compartment pressure does not rise again, which could lead to tissue damage or necrosis. Elevation of the limb should be moderate to promote venous return while maintaining performance. Fluid management and analgesics are essential but should be balanced against the risk of exacerbating compartment pressure.
Q3You are transporting a patient with severe heart failure who is on a ventricular assist device (VAD). During the transport, you note the patient's urine output, which was adequate at the sending facility, has decreased significantly. What is the most likely reason?
✓ Correct answer: B. Impaired renal perfusion due to low VAD flow settings
The most likely cause of decreased urine output in this scenario is impaired renal perfusion due to low VAD flow settings, which may not provide adequate circulatory support to maintain kidney function. The other options do not directly relate to the VAD's effect on renal perfusion. Device malfunction causing pulmonary congestion or VAD thrombosis leading to systemic embolism would cause different clinical signs. Hemorrhage could lead to reduced blood volume and systemic effects, but it is not as directly related to VAD operations concerning reduced urine output.
Q4You are called to a scene where a 70-year-old male is experiencing severe dehydration. The patient's blood test shows an elevated potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which ECG finding is most likely associated with this electrolyte imbalance?
✓ Correct answer: C. Widened QRS complex
In cases of hyperkalemia, where serum potassium levels exceed 7.0 mEq/L, ECG changes such as a widened QRS complex and prolonged PR interval are common. These changes reflect impaired cardiac repolarization caused by high potassium levels. Peaked T waves often occur at lower potassium levels, typically between 5.5 mEq/L - 6.5 mEq/L.
Q5You are treating a 55-year-old female with rapid atrial fibrillation at a rate of 190 bpm. She exhibits altered mental status and hypotension. Initial synchronized cardioversion was attempted at 120 J but was unsuccessful. What is your next step in management?
✓ Correct answer: D. Increase joules and cardiovert
The patient exhibits unstable hemodynamics due to rapid atrial fibrillation. After unsuccessful cardioversion at 120 J, increasing the joules for synchronized cardioversion is the correct approach. Medications like diltiazem and procainamide are not indicated in the setting of hemodynamic instability. Defibrillation is inappropriate for a patient with a pulse.
Q6Considering the parameters for oxygen delivery in critical care, what is the arterial oxygen content (CaO_2) based on the given data? Parameter Value Cardiac Output (CO) 5 L/min Hemoglobin Concentration (Hb) 15 g/dL Arterial Oxygen Saturation (SaO_2) 98% Partial Pressure of Oxygen (PaO_2) 95 mmHg
✓ Correct answer: B. 20 mL O2/dL
CaO_2 calculation uses the formula: $$CaO_2 = (Hb imes SaO_2 imes 1.34) + (PaO_2 imes 0.003)$$ Where Hb = 15 g/dL, SaO_2 = 98%, PaO_2 = 95 mmHg. Plugging in these values, CaO_2 = $$15 imes 0.98 imes 1.34 + 95 imes 0.003$$. This results in approximately 20 mL O2/dL.
Q7A patient is brought to the emergency department showing signs of respiratory distress. Analyze the following arterial blood gas results for this patient and determine the primary acid-base disturbance. What is the best initial treatment? Parameter Normal Values Patient Values pH 7.35 - 7.45 7.28 PaCO2 35 - 45 mmHg 52 mmHg HCO3- 22 - 26 mEq/L 24 mEq/L
✓ Correct answer: D. Respiratory acidosis; administer oxygen and consider ventilatory support.
The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis due to elevated $$PaCO_{2}$$ (52 mmHg) and low pH (7.28), with normal HCO3-. The primary treatment should be to administer oxygen and consider ventilatory support to enhance ventilation and lower $$CO_{2}$$ levels.
Q8You are evaluating a 45-year-old woman with acute respiratory failure due to a severe asthma attack. Her arterial blood gas analysis yields the following results: Parameter Measurement pH 7.30 PaO2 (mmHg) 55 PaCO2 (mmHg) 55 HCO3- (mEq/L) 30 SaO2 (%) 88 Based on these arterial blood gas results, which of the following interpretations is most accurate with regards to the patient's acid-base status?
✓ Correct answer: C. Respiratory acidosis with compensated metabolic alkalosis
The pH of 7.30 indicates acidemia, suggesting an acid-base imbalance. The elevated $$PaCO_{2}$$ of 55 mmHg is consistent with respiratory acidosis, typically seen in conditions like severe asthma where ventilation is compromised. The HCO3- is higher than normal, indicating a compensatory metabolic alkalosis mechanism to counteract the respiratory acidemia. This reflects how the body compensates over time to balance pH in the presence of chronic respiratory conditions.
Q9Which of the following is not a component of the APGAR score?
✓ Correct answer: C. Systolic blood pressure
Answer: Systolic blood pressure The APGAR score evaluates a newborn's condition immediately after birth based on five categories: appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration. Systolic blood pressure is not part of the APGAR score.
Q10A construction worker is brought to the emergency department after falling from a two-story building. The patient complains of severe lower back pain and exhibits unilateral paralysis in the left leg. What is the most appropriate immediate management strategy?
✓ Correct answer: C. Applying a spinal board and immobilizing the spine
Applying a spinal board and immobilizing the spine is crucial in managing suspected spinal injuries effectively. This prevents further damage to the spinal cord or surrounding structures. Immobilization should be prioritized in cases of trauma with potential spinal involvement, especially when a fall from height is involved and there is indication of neurological involvement like paralysis. Administering high-flow oxygen or rapid IV fluids is not the immediate priority for managing spinal injuries. Additionally, the recovery position is typically used for unconscious patients to maintain the airway but not for spinal stabilization.
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