HomeCRISC IT Risk Exam PrepQuestions 11–20
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CRISC IT Risk Exam Prep Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

CRISC IT Risk Exam Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q11When implementing a new data encryption system, which of the following vulnerabilities could potentially be introduced?

    • AImprovement in data access time
    • BNo possible new vulnerabilities can be introduced.
    • CLoss of existing encrypted data
    • DIncrease in data processing speed
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Loss of existing encrypted data

    Answer: Loss of existing encrypted data When implementing a new data encryption system, if the migration process is not handled properly, existing encrypted data could become inaccessible, resulting in data loss.

  2. Q12Which tool or technique is commonly utilized by organizations to systematically identify and assess risks in their information systems?

    • AMarketing strategies
    • BRisk assessment framework
    • CEmployee training sessions
    • DCustomer feedback surveys
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Risk assessment framework

    Answer: Risk assessment framework A risk assessment framework is a structured tool used by organizations to identify, evaluate, and prioritize risks in their information systems. These frameworks provide a systematic approach, including methodologies, processes, and best practices, to help organizations manage and mitigate risks effectively.

  3. Q13What is the primary risk associated with a new software deployment that relies heavily on untested technologies?

    • ATechnology failure
    • BExcessive user training
    • CExtended testing periods
    • DRedundant system redundancies
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Technology failure

    Answer: Technology failure Deploying new software that relies on untested technologies can lead to technology failures, which can compromise the system’s functioning and result in significant project delays.

  4. Q14What is the maximum fine for violating the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations?

    • A$\$1.5$ million annually per violation category
    • BNo limit
    • C25% of the organization's yearly revenue
    • D$\$5$ million per incident
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. $\$1.5$ million annually per violation category

    Answer: $\$1.5$ million annually per violation category. HIPAA sets stringent penalties for non-compliance to ensure the protection of sensitive patient health information.

  5. Q15Which of the following is NOT a criteria for selecting an information security framework for an organization?

    • AGeographical location
    • BRisk tolerance
    • CRegulatory requirements
    • DBusiness objectives
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Geographical location

    Answer: Geographical location Selecting an information security framework involves considering the organization's risk tolerance, regulatory requirements, and business objectives to ensure comprehensive security measures.

  6. Q16In the context of security operations, what risk factor makes it challenging to appropriately respond to an incident due to lack of awareness of involved assets?

    • ALack of network bandwidth
    • BLack of event logging
    • CLack of compliance
    • DLack of asset inventory
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Lack of asset inventory

    Answer: Lack of asset inventory Without a comprehensive asset inventory, it becomes very difficult to identify and respond to incidents effectively. Asset inventory ensures that all assets are accounted for, thus facilitating better incident management.

  7. Q17When dealing with unexpected IT system downtimes, what is the most effective risk management response to ensure system resilience?

    • AIncreasing staff training
    • BImplementing redundancy
    • CReducing software licensing fees
    • DExtending maintenance windows
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Implementing redundancy

    Answer: Implementing redundancy Unexpected IT system downtimes often occur due to hardware or software failures. Implementing redundancy—having backup systems in place—ensures that the system can continue to operate even if primary components fail, thereby enhancing resilience.

  8. Q18In the context of an organization's cybersecurity strategy, what role should the risk practitioner assume when dealing with new and evolving cyber threats?

    • AReactive response
    • BPolicy enforcer
    • CThreat mitigator only after an attack
    • DProactive monitoring
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Proactive monitoring

    Risk practitioners should engage in proactive monitoring to identify and address cyber threats before they materialize. This approach ensures that the organization stays ahead of potential risks, thereby aligning with its cybersecurity strategy and goals.

  9. Q19Which of the following principles is included in the ISACA Code of Professional Ethics?

    • AMaintain confidentiality and privacy of information
    • BShare all corporate information with external auditors without restriction
    • CAllow only CRISC-certified individuals to access secure information
    • DRenew ISACA certification bi-annually
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Maintain confidentiality and privacy of information

    Answer: Maintain confidentiality and privacy of information. The ISACA Code of Professional Ethics requires risk practitioners to uphold the confidentiality and privacy of information obtained during work engagements.

  10. Q20Which role identifies the individual responsible for approving a risk management strategy and ensuring its alignment with organizational goals?

    • AConsulted
    • BInformed
    • CRealized
    • DAccountable
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Accountable

    Answer: Accountable Individuals who are accountable are responsible for approving the risk management strategy. They ensure it aligns with organizational goals and oversee its implementation. Their accountability is crucial for the success of the strategy.

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