TheoryNASM CPT
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NASM CPT
Zone one of stage training is generally considered to be the “recovery zone.” <br/><br/>At what percent of the client’s max heart rate should this zone be performed?
Correct — D. Zone one of stage training is generally considered to be the “recovery zone” and should be performed at 65-75% percent of the client’s max heart rate. This training stage is used for the stabilization level of the OPT model. -
NASM CPT
When training a client, it is important to determine which of the following?
Correct — C. Designing exercises for your client depends on their fitness levels, goals and any physical limitations, including time restraints. -
NASM CPT
Exercising in neutral spine should make the movements<code>________</code>.
Correct — D. Exercising in neutral spine should make the movements more challenging but this is a good thing. We want to work hard, and above all we want to work our bodies in a safe and correct manner. -
NASM CPT
When does the body increase its functional capacity to adapt to the new stressor during the general adaptation syndrome?
Correct — A. The body increases its functional capacity to adapt to the new stressor during the general adaptation syndrome stage of resistance development. The kinetic chain improves its ability for muscle recruitment and adapts to the new stressor. -
NASM CPT
Which of the following is <i>not</i> a consideration related to determining rest intervals?
Correct — A. Age, occupation, and medical history are not a consideration related to determining rest intervals. All other factors listed are considerations for rest intervals and should be used to determine what the length of rest intervals will be with each individual client and may likely vary even from one workout to the next. -
NASM CPT
What is one effect exercise can have on insulin and glucagon?
Correct — C. Exercise can cause insulin levels to drop. As the intensity of exercise picks up, the body’s cells increase their glucose uptake. The pancreas increases glucagon secretion to assist in supplying the body with blood glucose. -
NASM CPT
Metabolism is the process by which the body converts what a person intakes into energy. This complex process combines the calories eaten with oxygen to release energy through <code>________</code>that the body needs to function.
Correct — C. The resting metabolic rate is the normal metabolic rate without external pressure or activity. Eating healthy calories make it easier for the body to function at optimum levels. -
NASM CPT
What type of tissue has a form called serous, which is fluid-filled?
Correct — C. Fascia is the tissue that has a form call serous, which is fluid-filled. This type of fascia makes up protective membranes that cover the internal viscera. Other types of fascia that do not have specific names relating to their functions are superficial and deep fascia. -
NASM CPT
What are the primary endocrine glands?
Correct — D. The hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands are the primary endocrine glands. These glands serve various functions within the body and control overall hormonal activity within the body. Everything from rates of metabolism to milk production after childbirth is affected by the endocrine glands. -
NASM CPT
Why are slow-twitch muscles more resistant to fatigue during exercise, thus making them better for longer duration exercises?
Correct — D. Slow-twitch muscles are more resistant to fatigue during exercise because they have less developed sarcoplasmic reticula, which release calcium more slowly. This causes a slower rate of ATP hydrolysis, so they do not tire as quickly. -
NASM CPT
What is considered to be the optimum training frequency per week in order to improve strength?
Correct — C. 3-5 times weekly is considered to be the optimum training frequency per week in order to improve strength. There is no significant difference between 3 and 5 days with regard to strength gain. Though more calories may be burned, the actual increase in strength is negligible. -
NASM CPT
Which gland is known as the “master” gland of the endocrine system?
Correct — D. The pituitary gland is known as the “master” gland of the endocrine system. The functions of the other endocrine glands are controlled by the pituitary gland. It has three different sections: the anterior, intermediate, and posterior lobes. -
NASM CPT
Anorexia nervosa is common in young women in their late teens and early twenties, and is characterized by:
Correct — C. A person with anorexia nervosa refuses to maintain body weight over a minimal normal weight for their age and height. Though underweight, the person experiences intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat. -
NASM CPT
Which hormones are involved in the body’s <i>fight or flight</i> response to stress?
Correct — C. Catecholamines are the hormones involved in the body’s <i>fight or flight</i> response to stress. The two catecholamines hormones, epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine, are made by the adrenal glands. These hormones assist the body in getting ready for activity. -
NASM CPT
Maintenance occurs during the final stage of change when<code>________</code>.
Correct — D. It is a personal trainer's duty to help clients discover activities that are enjoyable and rewarding enough to become habits. It should be activities that the client actually looks forward to. Clients are in the maintenance stage when they have established exercise as a habit. -
NASM CPT
Why is it important for the health and fitness professional to learn information about a client’s hobbies and recreational activities?
Correct — C. A health and fitness professional should understand about a client's hobbies and recreational activities so that a suitable training plan may be tailored to those specific lifestyle activities. To help prevent injury during these activities, the training plan should optimize exercises that are beneficial to the client's recreational habits. -
NASM CPT
What is the first accomplishment in the rapport step of READ?
Correct — B. The first accomplishment in the rapport step of READ is to establish trust. This shows the client that you have their best interest in mind and have integrity. This is a continuous process that helps keep confidence, enthusiasm, and professionalism high in the relationship. -
NASM CPT
What does the acronym SMART stand for?
Correct — A. SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely. SMART goals allow individuals to focus on precisely what they hope to accomplish by defining a specific plan of action. When using this method of goal-setting, an individual will feel more empowered and can concentrate efforts to achieve whatever goals are set. -
NASM CPT
A specific form of external feedback that provides the client with information to improve form issues is called what?
Correct — A. A specific form of external feedback that provides the client with information to improve form issues is called knowledge of performance. This is when the health and fitness professional provides ideas or guidance for the client to alter a form deficiency, perform the exercise again, and see or feel the difference in its movements. -
NASM CPT
If you notice your client's lower back arches during an overhead squat assessment, which muscle is most likely underactive?
Correct — D. The gluteus maximus is one of the most likely underactive muscles if your client's lower back arches during an overhead squat assessment. The hamstring complex and intrinsic core stabilizers are two other muscles that may be underactive. This problem can be treated with self-myofascial release and static stretching of the quadriceps, latissimus dorsi, and hip flexor complex. -
NASM CPT
What exercise is an example of one performed during balance stabilization training?
Correct — A. The single-leg lift and chop is an example of an exercise performed during balance stabilization training. Such exercises are characterized by little movement and proprioceptive response to environmental imbalance. The other answer choices are all core training exercises. -
NASM CPT
Which of the following is <i>not</i> one of the building blocks of the OPT model?
Correct — D. Weight management is <i>not</i> one of the building blocks of the OPT model. The OPT model consists of three levels of training: stabilization, strength, and power. -
NASM CPT
What is the progression of a dumbbell chest press?
Correct — C. The progression of a dumbbell chest press is two-arms, alternating-arms, and one-arm. This progression is used with most free weight exercises that allow the option of one-armed repetitions. It can provide great variety within the framework of a single exercise. -
NASM CPT
A sedentary lifestyle is one of the major causes of muscle imbalance, where muscles become shorter or longer than they should be. This affects the opposing muscle and causes problems in the musculoskeletal systems. One of the common problems is:
Correct — A. The thoracic spine develops a hunch back alignment or a forward head posture when sitting for too long at a desk. Tight hip flexors make it impossible for the abdominal muscles to work. -
NASM CPT
Which of the following would be an appropriate core stabilization training exercise?
Correct — D. Marching would be an appropriate core stabilization training exercise. This involves movement of the legs while lying supine on the floor, during which the spine and pelvis remain mostly motionless. -
NASM CPT
To make up for weak hip extensors, the <code>________</code>take over the work during an abdominal workout, increasing their risk for injury due to excessive strain, which was originally meant for the glutes.
Correct — B. To make up for weak hip extensors, the hamstrings take over the work during an abdominal workout, increasing their risk for injury due to excessive strain, which was originally meant for the glutes. It is possible to correct muscle imbalances and posture problems. A foam roller, medicine ball and even a tennis ball can be done before or after a workout, focusing on the muscles causing posture problems and imbalances. -
NASM CPT
If your client tells you they want to be challenged more to improve their fitness levels, you can:
Correct — C. A weight-training program should be performed at least twice a week with your client in order to yield good results. The sessions should be scheduled at least 1 day apart. -
NASM CPT
During which stage of training is interval training introduced?
Correct — D. Interval training is introduced during stage two of training. Interval training varies the intensity of exercise and has been shown to cause a longer elevated EPOC following the end of the session, compared to other forms of workouts. -
NASM CPT
Which performance assessment is used to test lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Correct — D. The performance assessment used to test lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control is the Shark skill test. This test is not appropriate for all clients because it is a progression from the single leg squat. -
NASM CPT
Which of the following is an example of a normal blood pressure measurement?
Correct — C. A normal blood pressure measurement is 120 to 130 mm Hg systolic and 80 to 85 mm Hg diastolic. Throughout a whole cardiac cycle, blood pressure refers to the pressure created by the heart when pumping and the minimal pressure within the arteries.
NASM CPT sample questions
Tap any question below to reveal the answer and a plain-English explanation.
Program Design Zone one of stage training is generally considered to be the “recovery zone.” At what percent of the client’s max heart rate should this zone be performed?
A. 80-85%
B. 85-95%
C. 75-80%
D. 65-75% ✓
Correct — D. Zone one of stage training is generally considered to be the “recovery zone” and should be performed at 65-75% percent of the client’s max heart rate. This training stage is used for the stabilization level of the OPT model.
Client Relations Behavioral Coaching Maintenance occurs during the final stage of change when________.
A. people realize they do not like to exercise
B. none of the above
C. they become self-confident
D. people have created an exercise habit ✓
Correct — D. It is a personal trainer's duty to help clients discover activities that are enjoyable and rewarding enough to become habits. It should be activities that the client actually looks forward to. Clients are in the maintenance stage when they have established exercise as a habit.
Professional Development Responsibility A personal trainer should use informed consent documents to ensure that their client fully understands the inherent risks involved in engaging in a training program. These consent forms allows your client:
A. To make informed decisions to proceed while protecting the personal trainer from liability for injuries ✓
B. To avoid signing a waiver
C. To not admit if they have any health conditions or concerns
D. None of the above
Correct — A. A waiver is still necessary to avoid being liable for injuries that result from negligence. A personal trainer should review all documents with their clients so that both parties are on the same page.
Basic Applied Sciences Nutritional Conce Metabolism is the process by which the body converts what a person intakes into energy. This complex process combines the calories eaten with oxygen to release energy through _______that the body needs to function.
A. fat
B. muscle
C. ATP ✓
D. all of the above
Correct — C. The resting metabolic rate is the normal metabolic rate without external pressure or activity. Eating healthy calories make it easier for the body to function at optimum levels.
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