HomeCPNP-PC Peds Nurse Exam PrepQuestions 21–30
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CPNP-PC Peds Nurse Exam Prep Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (21–30)

CPNP-PC Peds Nurse Exam Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q21In a rural community, a family brings their 6-year-old son to a local clinic after multiple asthma attacks over the past month. The family explains that they lacked transportation to visit a medical facility sooner. After a detailed health evaluation, the provider determines the child's condition has worsened due to delayed treatment. The MOST likely systemic factor contributing to the delay in seeking healthcare is:

    • APoverty
    • BCultural beliefs
    • CFamily neglect
    • DLanguage barriers
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Poverty

    Answer: Poverty In rural areas, poverty is a significant determinant of healthcare access. Limited financial resources restrict transportation options and healthcare visits, particularly in non-urban settings. While cultural beliefs and language barriers may impact healthcare accessibility, poverty predominantly affects the ability to obtain timely medical intervention.

  2. Q22A pediatric patient presents with a rare genetic skin disorder. Genetic testing reveals that different tissues have varying ratios of normal and abnormal cells. Based on the analysis presented, determine which condition the patient likely has.

    • AMitochondrial disorder
    • BMosaicism
    • CMonogenetic disorder
    • DMultifactorial disorder
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Mosaicism

    Answer: Mosaicism Mosaicism occurs when a person has two or more genetically different cell lines in their body. The genetic test showed different percentages of abnormal cells in various tissues, a characteristic feature of mosaicism. Monogenetic disorders affect a single gene and involve uniform cell populations. Multifactorial disorders arise from a combination of genetics and environment, and mitochondrial disorders involve energy-producing structures in cells.

  3. Q23During a prenatal ultrasound, which skeletal abnormality is MOST commonly identified due to its prevalence during fetal development?

    • AClubfoot (talipes equinovarus)
    • BSpina bifida
    • CGastroschisis
    • DCleft palate
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Clubfoot (talipes equinovarus)

    Answer: Clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) Clubfoot is one of the most common congenital skeletal abnormalities and is often detectable during pregnancy through ultrasound imaging. It involves a deformity where the foot is twisted out of shape or position, commonly presenting as talipes equinovarus. Clubfoot occurs in approximately 1 in every 1,000 live births and is detected in the second trimester through a routine ultrasound, primarily due to the characteristic foot positioning.

  4. Q24The initial sign of female puberty is:

    • ARapid growth in height
    • BBreast development
    • COnset of menstruation
    • DGrowth of pubic hair
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Breast development

    The initial sign of puberty in females is breast development, typically beginning around 10 years old. The onset of menstruation, growth of pubic hair, and rapid height growth are also significant changes during puberty but occur after breast development. Just as with males, awareness of the sequence of these developments is important when assessing the progression of puberty in females.

  5. Q25A newborn is delivered at 32 weeks' gestation via cesarean section. Shortly after birth, the baby presents with labored breathing and decreased lung compliance. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for these symptoms?

    • ABronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
    • BRespiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
    • CNeonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
    • DTransient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)

    Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) is common in preterm infants due to insufficient surfactant production. The clinical presentation includes labored breathing and decreased lung compliance shortly after birth.

  6. Q26At what age is it recommended that children receive their first annual influenza vaccine according to the standard pediatric vaccination schedule?

    • A1 year
    • B3 months
    • C9 months
    • D6 months
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. 6 months

    Answer: 6 months The influenza vaccine is recommended annually for everyone 6 months and older, with the first dose being particularly important as it helps develop immunity in the youngest children. This recommendation applies regardless of the varying effectiveness rates of vaccines in different years.

  7. Q27A 12-month-old toddler is typically able to:

    • AUse scissors to cut paper
    • BBalance on one foot for a few seconds
    • CTake a few steps without support
    • DSay simple sentences
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Take a few steps without support

    At 12 months, toddlers can usually take a few steps without support, which marks the beginning of independent walking. Saying simple sentences is expected around 18-24 months. Using scissors typically develops around 3-4 years old, and balancing on one foot usually appears at about 3 years.

  8. Q28Which of the following is the MOST common trigger of asthma in children? Asthma Trigger Prevalence in Children Pollen 25% Dust Mites 35% Pet Dander 20% Mold Spores 15%

    • APollen
    • BPet Dander
    • CMold Spores
    • DDust Mites
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Dust Mites

    Answer: Dust Mites Dust mites are a common indoor allergen and are the leading cause of asthma exacerbations in children. While other options like pollen and pet dander are also common, dust mites have the highest prevalence in triggering asthma.

  9. Q29Review the following scenarios involving pediatric nutrition and lifestyle behavioral changes. Identify the behavioral model that focuses on understanding and addressing health-risk behaviors rather than promotion in each case. Scenario Model A 12-year-old child is advised to reduce sugar intake. The child understands that limiting sugar can prevent obesity-related diseases. Model A A family is encouraged to promote physical activities among their kids to improve overall family health and bonding. Model B A teen is in the awareness stage of a smoking cessation program and wants to adopt healthier coping mechanisms. Model C A mother is concerned about her toddler's eating patterns and wants to ensure a balanced diet to prevent iron deficiency anemia. Model D

    • AModel C
    • BModel D
    • CModel A
    • DModel B
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Model A

    Model A reflects a scenario where a child understands that reducing sugar intake can prevent obesity-related diseases. This aligns with the health belief model, which is focused on preventing specific diseases or conditions through understanding perceived risks and benefits. Model B is an example of promoting overall health for family bonding, not specifically avoiding negative health outcomes, which aligns more with the health promotion model. Model C involves a teen in the awareness stage, which could fit within the transtheoretical model focusing on stages of change. Model D is about ensuring a balanced diet to prevent deficiencies, which is more specific to health management rather than a disease prevention model alone.

  10. Q30A 6-year-old patient with sickle cell disease is at a higher risk for certain infections. The child has completed all routine vaccinations up to this age. Which of the following vaccines should the child receive to further reduce the risk of bacterial infections?

    • AMMR booster (2nd dose)
    • BDTaP (5th dose)
    • CMeningococcal conjugate
    • DVaricella booster (2nd dose)
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Meningococcal conjugate

    Answer: Meningococcal conjugate Children with sickle cell disease are at increased risk of infections with certain bacteria, including Neisseria meningitidis, due to impaired splenic function. As such, the meningococcal conjugate vaccine is recommended earlier to provide protection against meningococcal infections. Other routine vaccinations, like Varicella, MMR, and DTaP, would typically be completed at this age according to the regular immunization schedule.

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