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LCSW Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (21–30)

LCSW practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q21According to the DSM-V definition of PTSD, which of the following is the second criteria?

    • AThe person must have 2 or more symptoms of negative alterations in cognitions and mood...
    • BThe person must have at least one symptom of persistently reexperiencing the traumatic event, including intrusive images or thoughts, dreams about the event, a sense that the event is recurring, intense distress when reminded of the event, or physiological reactivity to event-related cues.
    • CThe person must directly experience the trauma, witness the trauma happen to others, learn the trauma occurred to a close family member/friend, or experience repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of trauma.
    • DThe person must display avoidance of stimuli that are associated with the trauma and numbing of general responsiveness.
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. The person must have at least one symptom of persistently reexperiencing the traumatic event, including intrusive images or thoughts, dreams about the event, a sense that the event is recurring, intense distress when reminded of the event, or physiological reactivity to event-related cues.

    <br/><br/>There are a total of eight criteria under the definition of PTSD, according to the current DSM-V. Of the above:<br/><br/>Criterion 1: The person must directly experience the trauma, witness the trauma happen to others, learn the trauma occurred to a close family member/friend, or experience repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of trauma.<br/><br/>Criterion 2: The person must have at least one symptom of persistently reexperiencing the traumatic event, including intrusive images or thoughts, dreams about the event, a sense that the event is recurring, intense distress when reminded of the event, or physiological reactivity to event-related cues.<br/><br/>Criterion 3: The person must display avoidance of stimuli that are associated with the trauma and numbing of general responsiveness.<br/><br/>Criterion 4: The person must have 2 or more symptoms of negative alterations in cognitions and mood...

  2. Q22Which psychological test is utilized to diagnose individuals with psychopathology?

    • AMyers-Briggs Type Indicator
    • BWechsler Intelligence Scale
    • CRorschach Inkblot Test
    • DMinnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

    The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a psychological test used to diagnose individuals with psychopathology. It consists of a series of questions or statements that the individual must respond to, and the test is designed to assess various aspects of their personality and mental health. The MMPI has been widely used in clinical settings and research studies to evaluate individuals for a wide range of psychopathologies, including depression, anxiety disorders, schizophrenia, personality disorders, and other mental health conditions. It has established norms and scoring systems that allow clinicians to interpret the results and make diagnostic decisions.<br/><br/>Option B (Rorschach Inkblot Test) is not the correct answer. The Rorschach Inkblot Test is a projective psychological test in which a person's responses to ambiguous inkblot images are analyzed to determine their personality traits and psychological functioning. While it can provide valuable insights into an individual's thought processes and emotional functioning, it is not specifically designed to diagnose psychopathology.<br/><br/>Option C (Wechsler Intelligence Scale) is not the correct answer. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale is a series of tests used to measure intelligence and cognitive abilities in individuals. It assesses various aspects of cognitive functioning, including verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory, and processing speed. While intelligence testing can be a part of a comprehensive psychological assessment, it is not specifically used to diagnose psychopathology.<br/><br/>Option D (Myers-Briggs Type Indicator) is not the correct answer. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is a self-report questionnaire that measures an individual's preferences and tendencies in how they perceive the world and make decisions. It classifies individuals into different personality types based on four dichotomies: extraversion/introversion, sensing/intuition, thinking/feeling, and judging/perceiving. While the MBTI can provide insights into an individual's personality style, it is not used for diagnosing psychopathology.<br/><br/>In summary, the correct answer to the question is A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. This test is specifically utilized to diagnose individuals with psychopathology, as it assesses various aspects of their personality and mental health. The other options mentioned (B) Rorschach Inkblot Test, C) Wechsler Intelligence Scale, and D) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator) are not designed for this purpose and serve different psychological assessments.

  3. Q23Which of the following sleep disorders would NOT be considered a parasomnia?

    • Asleep apnea
    • Bsleepwalking
    • Cnightmare disorder
    • Dsleep terror disorder
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. sleep apnea

    Sleep apnea is a dysomnia, not a parasomnia. The parasomnias involve abnormal behavioral or physiological events occurring in association with sleep stages or the transitions between sleep stages.

  4. Q24In group supervision, a supervisor presents you with the following information and asks whether there is a problem with the diagnosis: The client is a 24-year-old male who presents with delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech. <br/><br/>These symptoms lasted for nearly three weeks then subsided. He denies any substance use and bipolar disorder. The patient was diagnosed with Schizophrenia.<br/><br/>Which of the following represents the problem with the diagnosis of Schizophrenia?

    • AThe symptoms are more accurately described by Schizophreniform Disorder Due to the lack of catatonia and/or negative symptoms.
    • BThe symptoms are more accurately described by Delusional Disorder due to the presence of delusions and the duration of symptoms.
    • CThe diagnosis fits due to presence of delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech.
    • DThe symptoms are more accurately described by Brief Psychotic Disorder due to the presence of delusions and hallucinations and the duration of symptoms.
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. The symptoms are more accurately described by Brief Psychotic Disorder due to the presence of delusions and hallucinations and the duration of symptoms.

    The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for Brief Psychotic Disorder include the presence of hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech with last between one day and one month. Under the DSM-5, Delusional Disorder has a duration of one month or longer.

  5. Q25Which specific standard under the category of "Social Workers' Ethical Responsibilities to Colleagues" states the importance of clearly defining the ethical and professional duties of individual team members and the group as a whole?

    • AStandard 2.02
    • BStandard 2.04
    • CStandard 2.03
    • DStandard 2.01
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. Standard 2.03

    Standard 2.03 under the category of "Social Workers' Ethical Responsibilities to Colleagues" states the importance of clearly defining the ethical and professional duties of individual team members and the group as a whole. This standard recognizes that effective teamwork requires a clear understanding of everyone's roles and responsibilities within the group. It emphasizes the need for social workers to engage in open and honest communication with their colleagues to establish and maintain a strong ethical foundation within the team.<br/><br/>Option A (Standard 2.02) is incorrect. Standard 2.02 focuses on confidentiality and privacy in the context of social workers' professional relationships with colleagues. While maintaining confidentiality is important, it does not specifically address the need to define ethical and professional duties of team members.<br/><br/>Option C (Standard 2.04) is incorrect. Standard 2.04 addresses conflicts of interest in social workers' relationships with colleagues. It emphasizes the need for social workers to be mindful of any personal, financial, or organizational interests that may compromise their professional obligations. However, it does not directly relate to defining the ethical and professional duties of individual team members and the group as a whole.<br/><br/>Option D (Standard 2.01) is incorrect. Standard 2.01 focuses on the need for social workers to treat colleagues with respect, fairness, and courtesy. It emphasizes the importance of fostering collaborative and supportive relationships within the profession. While this standard promotes a positive work environment, it does not specifically address the importance of defining ethical and professional duties within the team.<br/><br/>In summary, Standard 2.03 specifically addresses the importance of clearly defining the ethical and professional duties of individual team members and the group as a whole, making it the correct answer in this context.

  6. Q26Collectivism refers to a cultural concept where the emphasis is placed on serving the group to which individuals belong. This cultural mindset values teamwork and emphasizes the shared recognition of personal achievements by all members.<br/><br/>Which group of individuals can be considered the complete opposite in terms of their approach, beliefs, or values?

    • AIndividualism
    • BUniversalism
    • CDiversified
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: A. Individualism

    Individualism is the complete opposite of collectivism. It refers to the belief in the supreme worth and importance of the individual over the collective or society as a whole. Individualists prioritize personal freedom, autonomy, and self-reliance. They value individual rights and responsibilities and believe in limited government intervention in personal affairs.<br/><br/>Option A (Universalism) is not the opposite of collectivism. Universalism is a belief system that promotes equal rights, justice, and inclusivity for all individuals, regardless of their cultural, religious, or social background. It focuses on finding commonalities and promoting unity among people.<br/><br/>Option C (Diversified) is not the opposite of collectivism. Diversified refers to the state of being diverse or varied, emphasizing the presence of different elements or qualities within a group or society. It recognizes and values different perspectives, experiences, and identities. Since options A and C are not the opposite of collectivism, it makes option D incorrect as a whole.<br/><br/>Therefore, the correct opposite of collectivism is individualism (option B).

  7. Q27Consent must meet how many criteria?

    • A2.
    • B5.
    • C6.
    • D3.
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: D. 3.

    All competent adults have the right to refuse treatment. Consent must meet three criteria. It must be informed, voluntary, and competent.

  8. Q28With regard to a client's self-determination, social workers have the responsibility of what?

    • ATo discourage it.
    • BShow enthusiasm for it, only in particular clients.
    • CBoth disregard and demote it.
    • DBoth promote and respect it.
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: D. Both promote and respect it.

    Social workers must follow a code of ethics. Social workers have the responsibility of promoting and respecting a client’s right to self-determination. When working with clients, social workers should only provide services that they are competent in.

  9. Q29Participants in peer group supervision learn better ways to manage professional problems and reduce stress. There are six phases of peer group supervision, the first of which is

    • Acasting
    • Bcase presentation
    • Cmethod choice
    • Dkey question
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. casting

    The first phase of peer group supervision is <strong>casting</strong>.<br/><br/>In casting the group agrees on who will be the moderator. The moderator guides the process of selecting case presenter. All other group members become consultants for the peer group supervision session.

  10. Q30The concept of ethics encompasses several important ideas and terms. Which of the following refers to the fundamental standards of right and wrong that an individual learns and incorporates into their values?

    • Amorals
    • Bnorms
    • Cideals
    • Dvalues
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: A. morals

    Morals are the principles of right and wrong typically acquired during early childhood development. An individual’s moral orientation is often shaped by religious beliefs, with societal influence playing a significant role in this development.

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