Medical Coding CCS Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (21–30)

Question 1

Immunization administration codes in CPT are reported:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Separately from and in addition to the vaccine product code. CPT requires separate coding for both the vaccine/toxoid product (e.g., 90686) and the immunization administration service (e.g., 90471). Both codes are reported together.

Question 2

Which CPT code is used to report initial psychiatric diagnostic evaluation (not including medical services)?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

90791. CPT 90791 is the psychiatric diagnostic evaluation without medical services. 90792 adds medical services (prescribing, etc.). 90832 and 90837 are psychotherapy time-based codes.

Question 3

A physician performs an E/M service and separately performs 45 minutes of individual psychotherapy with the same patient on the same day. How should this be coded?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

E/M code plus add-on psychotherapy code 90833, 90836, or 90838 as appropriate. When an E/M service is performed on the same day as psychotherapy by the same physician, the add-on psychotherapy codes (90833, 90836, 90838) are appended to the E/M code to report the additional psychotherapy time.

Question 4

Anesthesia services in CPT are reported based on which two primary units?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Base units and time units. Anesthesia billing uses a formula: (Base Units + Time Units + Modifying Units) × Conversion Factor. Base units are assigned to each anesthesia code and time units reflect the duration of the service.

Question 5

Which modifier indicates that anesthesia services were personally performed by an anesthesiologist (not medically directed)?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

-AA. Modifier -AA indicates anesthesia services were personally performed by an anesthesiologist. -QK is for medical direction of two to four CRNAs, and -QZ is for a CRNA without medical direction.

Question 6

A patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has a documented history of severe systemic disease. Which physical status modifier should be appended to the anesthesia code?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

-P3. ASA physical status P3 is for a patient with severe systemic disease. P2 is mild systemic disease, P4 is severe disease that is a constant threat to life, and P5 is a moribund patient.

Question 7

Modifier -25 is used to indicate:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Significant, separately identifiable E/M service on the day of a procedure. Modifier -25 is appended to an E/M code to indicate that a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service was provided on the same day as a procedure or other service.

Question 8

Which modifier is used when a procedure or service was reduced or eliminated at the physician's discretion?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

-52. Modifier -52 (Reduced services) indicates that a service or procedure is partially reduced or eliminated at the physician's discretion. Modifier -53 is used when the procedure is discontinued after the patient has been prepared or placed on the table.

Question 9

Modifier -59 is used to identify a distinct procedural service. CMS created X modifiers as subsets of -59. Which X modifier indicates a different session?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

-XE indicates a separate encounter/session on the same day. Modifier -XE (Separate Encounter) is used when a procedure is performed at a different session or encounter on the same day, which is a subset use of the broader -59 modifier.

Question 10

Outpatient hospital facility services are reimbursed by Medicare under which payment system?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS). Medicare reimburses outpatient hospital services under the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), which groups services into Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs). DRGs are used for inpatient services.

Medical Coding CCS Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (21–30)

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