MOH Nurse Exam Prep UAE Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (1–10)

Question 1

A patient post-gastrectomy develops diaphoresis, weakness, and diarrhea 30 minutes after eating. This is most likely:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Dumping syndrome (early). Early dumping syndrome occurs 15–30 minutes post-meal after gastrectomy; rapid gastric emptying causes fluid shift and vasomotor symptoms.

Question 2

A physician orders 1 L of 0.9% NaCl to infuse over 8 hours via a drip set that delivers 20 drops/mL. What is the drip rate in drops/minute?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

42 gtts/min. Drip rate = (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = (1000 x 20) / 480 = 20000 / 480 = 41.7 = 42 gtts/min.

Question 3

A patient with asthma uses a salbutamol (albuterol) inhaler. This drug acts primarily as a:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Beta-2 adrenergic agonist causing bronchodilation. Salbutamol is a selective beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, causing rapid bronchodilation and relief of acute bronchospasm.

Question 4

A patient is started on warfarin therapy. Which lab value does the nurse monitor?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

PT/INR. Warfarin (a vitamin K antagonist) is monitored using Prothrombin Time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).

Question 5

Which assessment is MOST important before administering a patient's first dose of IV ampicillin?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Assess for penicillin allergy history. Ampicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic; allergy assessment is mandatory before the first dose to prevent potentially fatal anaphylaxis.

Question 6

High-level disinfection (HLD) is appropriate for which category of medical equipment?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Semi-critical items that contact mucous membranes (e.g., endoscopes). Spaulding classification: critical items require sterilization; semi-critical items (contact mucous membranes) require high-level disinfection; non-critical items require low-level disinfection.

Question 7

When using the two-patient identifier requirement for medication administration, which identifiers are MOST appropriate?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Patient name and date of birth (or medical record number). The Joint Commission and WHO require at least two patient-specific identifiers; name and date of birth (or MRN) are most reliable; room and bed numbers are NOT acceptable identifiers.

Question 8

A patient is on furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor for:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia.

Question 9

A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

I will report any unusual bruising or prolonged bleeding to my doctor. Patients on warfarin must report unusual bleeding and avoid OTC NSAIDs/aspirin (increased bleeding risk); regular INR monitoring is essential.

Question 10

A patient with peptic ulcer disease asks the nurse which OTC pain reliever is SAFEST to use. The nurse recommends:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Acetaminophen (paracetamol). Acetaminophen does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis in the GI mucosa and is safe for pain relief in peptic ulcer disease; NSAIDs and aspirin worsen mucosal damage.

MOH Nurse Exam Prep UAE Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (1–10)

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