NPTE-PTA Physio Asst Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q21In rehabilitation settings, the efficiency of a patient's muscle coordination can be assessed with various metrics. Which of the following measures focuses on the patient's reaction time?
✓ Correct answer: B. Performance
Answer: Performance The efficiency of a patient's muscle coordination is assessed by measuring different aspects. Reaction time is a critical component of performance metrics. Metrics for assessing muscle coordination include: Metric Description Performance Efficiency, reaction time Retention Ability to recall and perform actions after a rest period Transferability Applying learned skills to different but similar tasks Variability Applying learned skills to different environments or contexts
Q22A physical therapist assistant is assessing a patient who presents with significant weakness and partial loss of sensory function in both lower extremities. What is the MOST LIKELY type of injury?
✓ Correct answer: D. Incomplete spinal cord injury at level T10
Answer: Incomplete spinal cord injury at level T10 If a patient has significant weakness and partial loss of sensory function in both lower extremities, they likely have an incomplete spinal cord injury between T1 and T12-L1. An incomplete lesion means there is preservation of some sensory or motor function below the level of injury. Given the options, an incomplete spinal cord injury at level T10 is the most plausible diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms. A complete spinal cord injury results in no sensory or motor function below the level of the lesion. Injuries at levels C1 to C8 generally result in quadriplegia, affecting all four extremities and the trunk.
Q23A patient experiences difficulty lifting the toes of their foot, accompanied by weakness and pain along the lateral aspect of the leg and dorsum of the foot. Which condition is LIKELY?
✓ Correct answer: C. Peroneal nerve entrapment
Answer: Peroneal nerve entrapment Peroneal nerve entrapment often occurs at the fibular head and can result from trauma, prolonged pressure, or repetitive movements. Clinical signs include difficulty lifting the toes (foot drop), weakness, and pain along the lateral aspect of the leg and the dorsum of the foot. Tibial nerve entrapment may result from traumas like fractures or tight casts. Symptoms include weakness in the plantar flexors and invertors, with pain and paresthesia in the sole of the foot. Femoral nerve entrapment may lead to weakness and loss of sensation in the anterior thigh and medial leg, often from pelvic fractures or surgical procedures. Sciatic nerve entrapment often results from compression by the piriformis muscle, leading to pain radiating down the back of the leg and foot, along with weakness in the hamstrings and muscles below the knee.
Q24A patient is brought to the emergency room after experiencing a severe head trauma. During the initial assessment, the patient opens their eyes only in response to a painful stimulus, shows minimal awareness of their surroundings, and provides slow or absent verbal responses. What is the most likely level of consciousness for this patient?
✓ Correct answer: A. Stupor
Answer: Stupor A patient is considered to be in a stupor when they can be roused from sleep only with painful stimuli, return to an unresponsive state when those stimuli are removed, exhibit slow or absent verbal responses, and demonstrate minimal awareness of self and the environment. The levels of consciousness are as follows: Level of Consciousness Characteristics Alertness Patient responds fully and appropriately to stimuli, and can open their eyes and look at the examiner. Lethargy Patient appears drowsy, can open their eyes and look at the examiner, responds to questions, and falls asleep easily. Obtundation Patient can open their eyes and look at the examiner but responds slowly, is confused, and exhibits decreased alertness and interest in the environment. Stupor Patient can be roused from sleep only with painful stimuli, returns to an unresponsive state when those stimuli are removed, exhibits slow or absent verbal responses, and demonstrates minimal awareness of self and the environment. Coma Patient is unconscious and cannot be roused, keeps eyes closed, and exhibits no response to external stimuli. Unresponsive Wakefulness Syndrome (Vegetative State) Patient has sleep/wake cycles and normalized respiration, heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion. Patient can be roused but is unaware of their surroundings. Minimally Conscious State (MCS) Patient has severely altered consciousness with minimal but evident awareness of self and/or the environment.
Q25A physical therapist assistant is preparing to work with a patient who has suffered a cerebellar stroke. The evaluation states the patient exhibits ataxic movements and tremors. What can the therapist expect of this patient?
✓ Correct answer: C. The patient may exhibit uncoordinated movements and difficulty with balance.
Answer: The patient may exhibit uncoordinated movements and difficulty with balance. A patient who has suffered a cerebellar stroke often experiences ataxia and intention tremor, leading to uncoordinated movements and balance issues. The cerebellum is responsible for coordination, balance, and fine-tuning motor movements. Damage to this area typically manifests in difficulties such as unsteady gait, tremors during movement, and lack of coordination.
Q26Which hormone plays a crucial role in regulating calcium levels by increasing calcium absorption in the intestines, reducing its loss through the kidneys, and releasing calcium from bones?
✓ Correct answer: C. Parathyroid hormone
Answer: Parathyroid hormone Parathyroid hormone is secreted by the parathyroid glands and is essential for maintaining calcium balance. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, reduces calcium loss through the kidneys, and releases calcium from bones to increase blood calcium levels. Calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland, functions to decrease blood calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption and increasing calcium excretion in the kidneys. Insulin regulates glucose levels, and glucagon increases glucose production by the liver.
Q27Which gland is primarily responsible for regulating the body's calcium levels by releasing parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
✓ Correct answer: A. Parathyroid glands
Answer: Parathyroid glands The parathyroid glands are key components of the endocrine system that regulate the body's calcium levels by releasing parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclast activity, enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines, and promoting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys. The thyroid gland releases triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). The adrenal glands release hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline. The pancreatic islet cells release insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin.
Q28During the immediate postpartum period, many patients report discomfort and difficulty with urination. Which of the following options is MOST LIKELY to occur due to weakened pelvic floor muscles?
✓ Correct answer: B. Stress incontinence
Correct answer: Stress incontinence Stress incontinence involves the sudden release of urine due to increased intra-abdominal pressure from actions such as coughing, laughing, exercising, or straining. This condition is commonly seen in postpartum patients due to the weakness and laxity of pelvic floor musculature. Urge incontinence is typically caused by detrusor muscle instability, stroke, or sensory instability. Overflow incontinence is often the result of anatomical obstruction, an acontractile bladder, or neurogenic bladder. Functional incontinence may be due to impaired cognition, stroke, or environmental barriers.
Q29Which of the following conditions significantly increases the risk of developing gallstones?
✓ Correct answer: A. Obesity
Answer: Obesity Obesity is a significant risk factor for the development of gallstones. Other risk factors include having diabetes, being female, and being over the age of 40. Hemorrhoids, appendicitis, and celiac disease do not directly increase the incidence of gallstones.
Q30A physical therapist assistant measures a patient's blood pressure as 150/95 mmHg. What is this an example of?
✓ Correct answer: B. Hypertension
Answer: Hypertension Hypertension is defined as a blood pressure (BP) reading of 140/90 mmHg or higher. Normal BP for adults is generally considered to be below 120/80 mmHg. Hypotension is defined as BP that is below normal, typically less than 90/60 mmHg. Prehypertension is defined as BP readings between 120–139/80–89 mmHg.
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