Paramedic practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q11A patient who is fully oriented and can communicate verbally would rate which of the following in terms of Verbal Response on the Glasgow Coma Scale.
✓ Correct answer: C. 5
The Glasgow Coma Scale rates verbal response from 1-5. A patient who is fully oriented and able to speak rates a 5 on this scale.
Q12About 80 to 85 percent of strokes are ischemic strokes.<br/><br/>These types of strokes result from which of the following?
✓ Correct answer: A. occlusion of a cerebral artery
Ischemic strokes result from <strong>occlusion of a cerebral artery</strong> that obstructs blood flow to an area of the brain. The most common underlying cause of ischemic strokes is atherosclerosis, the process in which fatty deposits collect and line the walls of vessels.
Q13You are treating a patient who has sustained a depressed skull fracture. What is the best treatment for this patient?
✓ Correct answer: D. Cover the area with a moist sterile dressing.
If a patient has sustained a depressed skull fracture, it is most likely open. The best care you can provide is to apply a moist sterile dressing to the affected area.
Q14Which of the following statements about spinal shock is least accurate?
✓ Correct answer: A. The autonomic dysfunction in spinal shock usually resolves within 2 to 4 weeks.
The autonomic dysfunction of spinal shock usually resolves within 24 hours. Rarely, though, spinal shock may last a few days to a few weeks.
Q15A complete tear of a ligament in connective tissues, which necessitates reattachment, is known as a <code>________</code>.
✓ Correct answer: C. 3rd degree sprain
A 3rd degree sprain refers to a complete tear of a ligament in connective tissues that requires reattachment. This is considered the most severe type of sprain, as it involves a significant tear in the ligament. Treatment for a 3rd degree sprain often involves surgery to repair and reattach the ligament, followed by a period of rehabilitation and physical therapy to regain strength and function in the affected joint.
Q16The information officer is responsible for which of the following?
✓ Correct answer: C. communicating information regarding the response to the public and press
If required, the incident commander may name officers to assist in managing an incident. The information officer (IO) is responsible for <strong>communicating information regarding the response to the public and press</strong>. .
Q17Which of the following statements about helmet removal in the prehospital setting is least accurate?
✓ Correct answer: C. Rescuers should coordinate removal of their hands from the patient at the same time.
This is the least accurate statement. Rescuers should never remove their hands from the patient at the same time.<br/><br/>This is because in-line mobilization must be maintained throughout the procedure.
Q18As a rule, paramedics should only use police escorts:
✓ Correct answer: D. when the EMS crew is responding to an unfamiliar area
Police escorts during an emergency response can be dangerous and should be used sparingly. As a rule, paramedics should use escorts <strong>only</strong> <strong>when the EMS crew is responding to a scene in an unfamiliar area</strong>. Even then the EMS driver should keep a safe distance between the ambulance and the escort.
Q19Which of the following is the FIRST step in providing emergency resuscitation to a newly born?
✓ Correct answer: A. Provide warmth.
The first step in emergency resuscitation of a newly born is to provide warmth. If the child does not begin breathing on his or her own, then clear the airway.
Q20Which of the following is an immediate or early sign and/or symptom that can indicate pulmonary hypertension?
✓ Correct answer: D. Atelectasis
Atelectasis is the lack of gas exchange and is an early stage. C and D are later stage symptoms.
Use the free Paramedic Exam Prep 2026 Test sample, download the PDF, then unlock web-based timed mock exams for a full exam rehearsal.