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Pharmacology Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

Pharmacology practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q11Which of the following statements is true about combination therapy for the treatment of HIV disease?

    • AIt is only effective if used alternating with periods of monotherapy.
    • BIs the only FDA-approved treatment for HIV disease.
    • CIt completely shuts off replication of HIV.
    • DIt appears to cause a sustained benefit achieved by drug no. 1 preventing the emergence of resistance to drug no. 2 despite resistance to drug no. 1.
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: D. It appears to cause a sustained benefit achieved by drug no. 1 preventing the emergence of resistance to drug no. 2 despite resistance to drug no. 1.

    Combination therapy is superior to monotherapy at this time for reasons described in this choice. This form of therapy is recommended for all patients with HIV by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) and the World Health Organization (WHO). This daily treatment of multiple HIV medications is an HIV regimen. <br/><br/><ul><li><strong>Option A:</strong> A typical initial HIV regimen includes three HIV medications from a minimum of two drug classes. Although this treatment is not curative, it can provide longer lives for patients and reduce HIV transmission. This reduction of transmission has become a popular use of antiretroviral therapy for individuals who are HIV-positive and are with an HIV-negative partner.</li><li><strong>Option B:</strong> The FDA does not approve of investigational HIV drugs. Investigational drugs include those used to treat or prevent HIV and vaccines to treat or prevent HIV. These drugs are only available in clinical trials. No vaccines exist yet; however, researchers are studying this possibility.</li><li><strong>Option D:</strong> The successes of antiretroviral therapy have reduced HIV to a chronic condition in many parts of the world as progression to AIDS has become rare. Studies have found that 3-drug therapy has led to a 60% to 80% decline in rates of AIDs, hospitalization, and death. By 2030 the CDC plans to implement a 90-90-90 plan (90% HIV diagnosed, 90% on therapy, and 90% suppressed).</li></ul>

  2. Q12Amphetamines are included in the category of drugs of abuse because of their ability to:

    • ACause nervousness
    • BDecrease weight
    • CRaise blood pressure
    • DEnhance performance
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Enhance performance

    Drugs that produce a desired effect, such as feelings of euphoria and improved performance, tend to be overused and abused. Nervousness, decreased weight, and increased blood pressure are all effects of amphetamine. However, they are considered drugs of abuse because of their ability to enhance performance and produce a euphoric effect. <br/><br/><ul><li><strong>Option A:</strong> Amphetamine is FDA-approved for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy. It has indications as a first-line agent for ADHD in adults and children six years of age and older. Amphetamine is also a second-line agent for the treatment of narcolepsy.</li><li><strong>Option B:</strong> Amphetamine is a central nervous (CNS) system stimulant that functions by increasing the amounts of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin (to a lesser extent) in the synaptic cleft through a variety of mechanisms. Amphetamine enters the presynaptic axon terminal through diffusion or uptake by the monoamine transporters DAT, NET, and SERT.</li><li><strong>Option C:</strong> Once inside the presynaptic terminal, amphetamine increases the amounts of monoamine neurotransmitters in the cytosol through the inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 (VMAT2) as well as through disruption of the electrochemical gradients necessary for vesicular transporter function. Amphetamine also inhibits the metabolism of monoamine neurotransmitters by inhibiting monoamine oxidase (MAO). At the same time, amphetamine stimulates the intracellular receptor TAAR1, which induces internalization or transporter reversal of DAT.</li></ul>

  3. Q13Which antiepileptic drug works by binding to sodium channels in their inactive state, prolonging that inactivity?

    • ALamotrigine
    • BPhenytoin
    • CLevetiracetam
    • DEthosuximide
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: B. Phenytoin

    Phenytoin works by binding to sodium channels in their inactive state, prolonging that inactivity.

  4. Q14Meditation would be considered to be in which of the following healing methods of CAM (Complementary and Alternative) therapies?

    • AMind-body interventions
    • BSpiritual
    • CBiologic-based therapies
    • DManual healing
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: A. Mind-body interventions

    Mind-body interventions could include:<br/><br/>Meditation<br/><br/>Yoga<br/><br/>Hypnotherapy<br/><br/>Biofeedback<br/><br/>Guided imagery<br/><br/>Movement-oriented therapies.

  5. Q15A male patient with blood type AB, Rh factor positive needs a blood transfusion. The Transfusion Service (blood bank) sends type O, Rh factor negative blood to the unit for the nurse to infuse into this patient. The nurse knows that:

    • AThis donor blood is incompatible with the patient’s blood.
    • BThis is a compatible match.
    • CThe patient is at minimal risk receiving this product since it is the first time he has been transfused with type O, Rh negative blood.
    • DPremedication of the patient with diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) will prevent any transfusion reactions or side effects.
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: B. This is a compatible match.

    Type O, Rh-negative blood has none of the major antigens and is safely administered to patients of all blood types. It is also known as the universal donor. It has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibodies are in the plasma). <br/><br/><ul><li><strong>Option A:</strong> Type O is routinely in short supply and in high demand by hospitals – both because it is the most common blood type and because type O negative blood is the universal blood type needed for emergency transfusions and for immune-deficient infants.</li><li><strong>Option B:</strong> Premedication with these agents will not prevent a major transfusion reaction if the blood type and Rh factors of the donor blood are incompatible with the recipient’s blood. Types O negative and O positive are in high demand. Only 7% of the population are O negative. However, the need for O negative blood is the highest because it is used most often during emergencies. The need for O+ is high because it is the most frequently occurring blood type (37% of the population).</li><li><strong>Option D:</strong> Approximately 45 percent of Caucasians are type O (positive or negative), but 51 percent of African-Americans and 57 percent of Hispanics are type O. Minority and diverse populations, therefore, play a critical role in meeting the constant need for blood.</li></ul>

  6. Q16A patient taking sulfasalazine should be told which of the following?<br/><br/>I. Take sulfasalazine with food<br/><br/>II. Sulfasalazine may turn tears, urine, and sweat orange<br/><br/>III. Sulfasalazine may induce photosensitivity<br/><br/>IV. Take sulfasalazine on an empty stomach.

    • AI and II only
    • BII and IV only
    • CI, II, and III only
    • DII, III, and IV only
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. I, II, and III only

    Sulfasalazine should be taken with food, can induce photosensitivity, and may turn body fluids an orange color.

  7. Q17Methylergonovine (Methergine) is prescribed to a patient who is having postpartum bleeding. Prior to giving the medication, the nurse contacts the physician who prescribed the medication if which of the following condition is documented in the patient’s chart?

    • AIschemic heart disease
    • BHypotension
    • CUterine atony
    • DAcute Gastroenteritis
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: A. Ischemic heart disease

    Methergine (methylergonovine maleate) is a semi-synthetic ergot alkaloid used for the prevention and control of postpartum hemorrhage. Ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular diseases such as ischemic heart disease, stroke, peripheral vascular disease, rheumatic heart disease. <br/><br/><ul><li><strong>Options A, B, &amp; D:</strong> These are not contraindicated with the use of methergine.</li></ul>

  8. Q18Which of the following laboratory tests must be monitored for pregnant patients receiving dexamethasone?

    • ARandom blood sugar
    • BRed blood cell count
    • CUric acid
    • DSerum Calcium
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: A. Random blood sugar

    Elevation of blood glucose level is expected for patients receiving corticosteroid therapy such as dexamethasone so a routine check on the sugar level must be monitored. <br/><br/><ul><li><strong>Options B &amp; D:</strong> These are not related to the use of dexamethasone.</li><li><strong>Option C:</strong> Instead of Red blood cell count, White blood cell count must be monitored for any signs of infection, because corticosteroid suppresses the immune system.</li></ul>

  9. Q19Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed to a client with alcohol withdrawal. <br/><br/>Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the treatment regimen?

    • A"This medication causes a blurring of vision".
    • B"I'll have my physician lower my dosage once I start to feel okay".
    • C"Drinking grapefruit can decrease the side effects with this medication".
    • D"This medication will cause a decreased platelet and white blood cell count in my blood".
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. "Drinking grapefruit can decrease the side effects with this medication".

    Diazepam (Valium) can cause side effects such as sleepiness and drowsiness. Meanwhile, grapefruit can reduce the metabolism of this drug. This can result in the increased pharmacologic effects of Valium as well as its side effects. <br/><br/><ul><li><strong>Option A:</strong> Blurred vision is a recognized adverse effect of valium.</li><li><strong>Option B:</strong> Long-term use of valium causes thrombocytopenia and neutropenia.</li><li><strong>Option C:</strong> Usually, a client who is prescribed with valium begins to take a low dosage and it will be adjusted over time to reach the right dosage. Once the patient feels okay, the physician will give the smallest dosage that provides the desired effect of the medication.</li></ul>

  10. Q20Tetracycline has been prescribed for a client with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. Select the side effect of the medication. <strong>Select all that apply.</strong>

    • ATremors
    • BUrinary frequency
    • CGlossitis
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. Glossitis

    Side effects of tetracycline include glossitis, discoloration of the nails, photosensitivity, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bulky loose stools, stomatitis, sore throat, black hairy tongue,dysphagia,and hoarseness.

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