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PMHNP Psych Nurse Exam Prep Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

PMHNP Psych Nurse Exam Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q11A PMHNP is working with a client with generalized anxiety disorder. According to Beck's cognitive theory of anxiety, which of the following is a core component of anxious thinking?

    • ALabeling
    • BBlaming
    • CCatastrophizing
    • DFiltering
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Catastrophizing

    Answer: Catastrophizing Beck's cognitive theory of anxiety posits that anxiety is characterized by exaggerated, distorted thinking patterns that contribute to feelings of worry, fear, and unease. Catastrophizing is a core component of anxious thinking and involves imagining the worst possible outcomes of a situation while minimizing any likelihood of positive outcomes. Filtering involves focusing entirely on the negative aspects of a situation while ignoring any positives. Labeling involves assigning a negative label to oneself based on a single event. Blaming involves attributing the cause of all negative events to external factors without considering internal causes.

  2. Q12Which neurotransmitter imbalance is most commonly associated with an increased risk of anxiety disorders?

    • AIncreased norepinephrine
    • BLow levels of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
    • CHigh levels of serotonin
    • DElevated levels of dopamine
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Low levels of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

    Answer: Low levels of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that reduces neuronal excitability throughout the nervous system. Low levels of GABA are linked to anxiety disorders. Conversely, high levels of serotonin, elevated dopamine, and increased norepinephrine are not typically associated with increased risk of anxiety disorders.

  3. Q13A patient presents with symptoms of hypersomnia, increased appetite, craving for carbohydrates, fatigue, and weight gain. These symptoms suggest an excess of which neurotransmitter?

    • ADopamine
    • BAcetylcholine
    • CNorepinephrine
    • DSerotonin
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Serotonin

    Answer: Serotonin An excess of serotonin is associated with symptoms such as hypersomnia, increased appetite, craving for carbohydrates, fatigue, and weight gain. These are often observed in conditions like atypical depression. An excess of dopamine results in symptoms of disorganized thinking, loose associations, tics, and stereotypic behavior. An excess of acetylcholine results in over-inhibition, anxiety, somatic complaints, self-consciousness, and drooling. An excess of norepinephrine results in hyperalertness, paranoia, and decreased appetite.

  4. Q14A patient presents with blindness, hallucinations, delusions, and significant sleep disturbances. The psychiatric nurse practitioner should suspect and assess further for which of the following diagnoses?

    • ALewy body dementia
    • BAlzheimer's Disease
    • CHuntington's Disease
    • DParkinson's Disease
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Lewy body dementia

    Answer: Lewy body dementia. Lewy body dementia is a type of progressive dementia that leads to a decline in thinking, reasoning, and independent function due to abnormal microscopic deposits that damage brain cells over time. These deposits are called Lewy bodies. Symptoms often include hallucinations, movement disorders, and sleep disturbances. These symptoms are different from those seen in Alzheimer's disease, which primarily affects memory, Huntington's disease, which primarily affects movement and cognition, and Parkinson's disease, which primarily affects movement.

  5. Q15In the pharmacological management of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following medications is typically avoided?

    • ASSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
    • BSNRIs (serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors)
    • CShort-term benzodiazepines
    • DAntihistamines
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Antihistamines

    Answer: Antihistamines Antihistamines are not typically considered first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). While they can help alleviate some symptoms of anxiety through their sedative effects, they are generally not recommended due to potential for significant drowsiness and other side effects. The other pharmacological management options listed here are all indicated for the treatment of GAD.

  6. Q16A patient is diagnosed with moderate to severe Parkinson's disease and is prescribed levodopa. The PMHNP is aware of the prescribing guidelines for levodopa. Which of the following medications is frequently prescribed with levodopa?

    • AIt should be used in combination with an antidepressant
    • BIt should be used in combination with an antipsychotic
    • CIt should be used in combination with carbidopa
    • DIt should be used as monotherapy
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. It should be used in combination with carbidopa

    Answer: It should be used in combination with carbidopa Levodopa is a precursor to dopamine, and it can cross the blood-brain barrier to be converted into dopamine, which is deficient in patients with Parkinson's disease. However, levodopa can be broken down before it reaches the brain, which is why it is commonly prescribed in combination with carbidopa. Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa before it reaches the brain, increasing its effectiveness. Levodopa should not be used as monotherapy because it is less effective without carbidopa. It should not be used in combination with antidepressants or antipsychotics as these are not evidence-based treatment options for Parkinson's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.

  7. Q17Which statement most accurately describes the legal principle of confidentiality in psychiatric care?

    • AConfidentiality refers to the right of patients to access their own medical records.
    • BConfidentiality obligates patients to disclose all relevant information to health care providers.
    • CConfidentiality is the obligation of health care providers to protect the privacy of patient information.
    • DConfidentiality allows health care providers to share patient information with other providers without consent.
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Confidentiality is the obligation of health care providers to protect the privacy of patient information.

    Answer: Confidentiality is the obligation of health care providers to protect the privacy of patient information. This legal principle ensures that sensitive patient information is not disclosed without the patient's consent, except in specific circumstances required by law. It aims to build trust between patients and providers, encouraging full and honest communication necessary for effective care.

  8. Q18Which term describes the formal process by which a professional organization verifies that an individual has met certain qualifications and standards to practice in a specific field?

    • ARegistration
    • BCertification
    • CCredentialing
    • DLicensure
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Certification

    Answer: Certification Certification is a process by which a professional organization verifies that an individual has met specific qualifications and standards to practice in a particular field. It ensures the practitioner has mastered a body of knowledge in that specialty. Credentialing is a broader process used to protect the public by ensuring a minimum level of professional competence. Licensure is a process by which an agency of state government grants permission to individuals to engage in the practice of a profession, prohibiting unlicensed persons from practicing it. Registration is unrelated to professional competence verification but rather involves the act of being listed in a formal registry.

  9. Q19Which statement most accurately defines informed consent in healthcare?

    • ALegal documents outlining a patient's future healthcare wishes.
    • BInformed consent involves providing a patient with information regarding their treatment, including risks, benefits, and alternatives, as well as allowing them to make a voluntary decision.
    • CA medical decision made by the healthcare provider on behalf of the patient.
    • DStandard healthcare practice ensuring the patient receives the best possible care.
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Informed consent involves providing a patient with information regarding their treatment, including risks, benefits, and alternatives, as well as allowing them to make a voluntary decision.

    Answer: Informed consent involves providing a patient with information regarding their treatment, including risks, benefits, and alternatives, as well as allowing them to make a voluntary decision. Informed consent means that a patient has been informed about the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives of a treatment or procedure, and has the freedom to give or withhold their consent. A medical decision is when a healthcare provider determines the best course of action for a patient based on medical knowledge and patient needs. Standard of care is the level of care and service that a healthcare professional of ordinary prudence would provide in a given situation. An advance directive is a legal document that specifies an individual's healthcare preferences in the event they become unable to communicate those preferences themselves.

  10. Q20Which of the following statements regarding the nurse practitioner's responsibility to report suspected child abuse is true?

    • AThe obligation to report suspected child abuse depends on the specific policies of the healthcare facility where the NP is employed.
    • BNurse practitioners are legally required to report any suspected child abuse, regardless of their practice setting.
    • CReporting suspected child abuse is only mandatory if the nurse practitioner works in a pediatric setting.
    • DNurse practitioners may choose to report suspected child abuse based on their professional judgment without any legal obligation.
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Nurse practitioners are legally required to report any suspected child abuse, regardless of their practice setting.

    Answer: Nurse practitioners are legally required to report any suspected child abuse, regardless of their practice setting. In all states, nurse practitioners, along with other healthcare professionals, are mandated reporters of child abuse. This legal obligation requires them to report any reasonable suspicion of child abuse to the appropriate authorities. The duty to report is not limited by the type of practice setting or the specific policies of the healthcare facility. Failure to report suspected abuse can result in legal consequences for the nurse practitioner.

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