Saudi Nurse SNLE Exam Prep Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

Question 1

Which of the following is a classic sign of compartment syndrome following a long-bone fracture?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Severe pain disproportionate to injury, pain with passive stretch, tense swelling, paresthesias. Compartment syndrome: 6 Ps — Pain (severe, disproportionate), Pain with passive stretch, Pressure (tense compartment), Paresthesia, Pallor, and Pulselessness (late sign). Elevation does NOT relieve compartment syndrome pain — it may worsen it. Emergency fasciotomy is required.

Question 2

The antidote for opioid overdose is:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Naloxone

Question 3

Ordered: furosemide 40 mg IV. Available: furosemide 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse draw up?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

4 mL

Question 4

A patient with myasthenia gravis develops sudden increased weakness, dyspnea, and inability to swallow. What is the priority nursing action?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Ensure airway, call rapid response team, prepare for possible intubation. Myasthenic crisis is a life-threatening complication involving respiratory muscle weakness that can cause respiratory failure. Airway management and rapid response activation are the immediate priorities before any pharmacological intervention.

Question 5

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a patient experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal with a CIWA-Ar score of 20?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Administer prescribed benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam), monitor vital signs frequently, and ensure safety. CIWA-Ar (Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol) score ≥15-20 indicates severe withdrawal requiring pharmacological treatment. Benzodiazepines are first-line — they reduce seizure risk and mortality. Antipsychotics alone do not prevent withdrawal seizures.

Question 6

A patient is prescribed potassium chloride 40 mEq IV. What is the safest administration practice?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Dilute in 100-250 mL and infuse at no faster than 10-20 mEq/hour via infusion pump. IV potassium must always be diluted and given slowly (max 10-20 mEq/hr peripheral, 40 mEq/hr central with monitoring). Rapid IV potassium can cause fatal cardiac arrest. Never administer as IV push.

Question 7

A patient with chronic pain asks about using NSAIDs long-term. What is the most important adverse effect the nurse should educate about?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Gastrointestinal bleeding and peptic ulceration. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which normally protects the gastric mucosa. Long-term use causes GI irritation, ulceration, and bleeding. Risk is reduced by taking with food, using the lowest effective dose, or adding a PPI.

Question 8

A patient is diagnosed with low serum potassium. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the patient to consume?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium (~422 mg per medium banana). Other high-potassium foods include oranges, potatoes, and spinach. White bread, rice, and chicken breast are low in potassium.

Question 9

A patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which bowel preparation instruction is correct?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Follow a clear liquid diet the day before and complete the prescribed bowel prep solution. Colonoscopy requires complete bowel cleansing for adequate visualization. The patient follows a clear liquid diet the day before (no red or purple liquids) and drinks the prescribed polyethylene glycol (PEG) solution for bowel preparation.

Question 10

Which dietary modification is MOST important for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) Stage 4?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Low-protein, low-phosphorus, low-potassium diet

Saudi Nurse SNLE Exam Prep Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

More Saudi Nurse SNLE Exam Prep practice questions

Free practice here. Timed mocks when you are ready.