USMLE Step 2 CK Medical Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q21A 45-year-old man presents with epigastric pain that worsens with meals and improves with antacids. He has been taking ibuprofen regularly for knee pain. Endoscopy reveals a 1 cm ulcer in the gastric antrum. H. pylori testing is positive. What is the most appropriate initial management?
✓ Correct answer: D. PPI, discontinuation of NSAIDs, and triple therapy for H. pylori
This patient has a gastric ulcer with positive H. pylori testing and NSAID use as contributing factors. First-line therapy includes proton pump inhibitor, discontinuation of NSAIDs, and H. pylori eradication therapy (typically with clarithromycin, amoxicillin, and a PPI for 14 days).
Q22A 25-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea, fatigue, and a 10-pound weight loss over 3 months. Colonoscopy reveals patchy inflammation with deep ulcerations and cobblestoning of the mucosa in the terminal ileum and ascending colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct answer: C. Crohn's disease
The presentation of patchy inflammation with deep ulcerations and cobblestoning involving the terminal ileum and ascending colon is classic for Crohn's disease. The skip lesions (patchy involvement) and transmural inflammation are distinguishing features of Crohn's disease as opposed to ulcerative colitis.
Q23A 60-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting for 12 hours. Labs show lipase 1500 U/L, WBC 14,000/mm³, glucose 180 mg/dL, and calcium 8.0 mg/dL. According to Ranson's criteria, which finding is a poor prognostic indicator for this patient?
✓ Correct answer: B. None of the listed values indicate poor prognosis per Ranson's criteria
This patient has acute pancreatitis. Ranson's criteria are used to assess severity. Poor prognostic indicators at admission include age >55, WBC >16,000/mm³, glucose >200 mg/dL, LDH >350 IU/L, and AST >250 IU/L. While this patient has several concerning factors, none of the values meet the threshold for poor prognosis according to Ranson's criteria among the options provided.
Q24A 40-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. Ultrasound shows gallstones and a dilated common bile duct. Lab results show elevated WBC, bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct answer: A. Antibiotics and urgent ERCP
This patient presents with Charcot's triad (RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice) suggestive of ascending cholangitis, a medical emergency. The most appropriate next step is ERCP to decompress the biliary system and remove the obstructing stone, after starting antibiotics and supportive care.
Q25A 55-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with increasing abdominal girth, bilateral leg edema, and confusion. Physical exam reveals spider angiomata, palmar erythema, and a fluid wave on abdominal examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct answer: D. Alcoholic cirrhosis with decompensation
This patient presents with classic findings of decompensated cirrhosis, including ascites (increasing abdominal girth, fluid wave), hepatic encephalopathy (confusion), and portal hypertension (edema). The physical exam findings of spider angiomata and palmar erythema are characteristic of chronic liver disease. Alcohol is a common cause of cirrhosis.
Q26A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea and a 15-pound weight loss. She reports bloating after consuming wheat products. Serum tests reveal positive anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and anti-endomysial antibodies. What is the most appropriate initial management?
✓ Correct answer: C. Gluten-free diet
This patient has celiac disease, as evidenced by symptoms of chronic diarrhea and weight loss associated with wheat consumption, and positive celiac-specific antibodies. The initial management is a strict gluten-free diet, which is the cornerstone of treatment for celiac disease.
Q27A 65-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with dysphagia that has progressively worsened over 3 months, initially with solids and now with liquids. He reports a 20-pound weight loss. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test?
✓ Correct answer: B. Upper endoscopy with biopsy
This patient presents with progressive dysphagia (initially for solids, then liquids) and weight loss, which are concerning for esophageal cancer, especially given his risk factor of smoking. Upper endoscopy (EGD) is the most appropriate initial test as it allows direct visualization and biopsy of any suspicious lesions.
Q28A 70-year-old man presents with hematochezia and left lower quadrant pain. CT scan shows thickening of the sigmoid colon wall with surrounding inflammatory changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct answer: A. Acute diverticulitis
The presentation of hematochezia and left lower quadrant pain in an elderly patient, along with CT findings of sigmoid colon wall thickening with surrounding inflammation, is most consistent with acute diverticulitis. Diverticular disease is common in older adults, and inflammation of diverticula (diverticulitis) can cause these symptoms and imaging findings.
Q29A 50-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis presents with altered mental status, asterixis, and fetor hepaticus. His ammonia level is elevated. What is the most appropriate initial management?
✓ Correct answer: D. Lactulose and identification of precipitating factors
This patient is presenting with hepatic encephalopathy, as evidenced by altered mental status, asterixis, fetor hepaticus, and elevated ammonia in a patient with cirrhosis. Initial management includes lactulose, which reduces ammonia production and absorption in the gut, and identification and treatment of precipitating factors such as GI bleeding, infection, medications, or electrolyte abnormalities.
Q30A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of severe abdominal pain after meals, especially fatty foods. Ultrasound shows multiple gallstones. What is the most appropriate management?
✓ Correct answer: C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
This patient has symptomatic cholelithiasis (gallstones) with biliary colic triggered by fatty meals. The most appropriate management is laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which is the definitive treatment for symptomatic gallstone disease to prevent recurrent attacks and complications such as cholecystitis, pancreatitis, or cholangitis.
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