AGPCNP Nurse Exam Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q21Which of the following is not a typical side effect of calcium channel blockers in the management of hypertension?
✓ Correct answer: A. Cough
Answer: Cough Calcium channel blockers are commonly used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions. Common side effects include peripheral edema, bradycardia, and constipation. Cough is not a typical side effect of calcium channel blockers; it is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors.
Q22In the table below, identify which physical findings are indicative of a potential basilar skull fracture following head trauma. Finding Description Indication Periorbital ecchymosis Bruising around the eyes Indicates potential fracture Battle's sign Bruising behind the ear Indicates potential fracture Simple laceration Cut on the skin Clear nasal discharge Clear fluid from nose Indicates potential fracture
✓ Correct answer: B. Periorbital ecchymosis and Battle's sign
Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, and Battle's sign are both signs indicative of a basilar skull fracture. They result from blood tracking through tissue planes following a fracture at the base of the skull. Simple lacerations are external and typically not related to skull fractures. A clear nasal discharge can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leak associated with a basilar skull fracture.
Q23Which of the following medications requires regular blood monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic index and potential for toxicity in elderly patients with renal impairment?
✓ Correct answer: D. Digoxin
Answer: Digoxin. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, making it essential to monitor blood levels to avoid toxicity, especially in elderly patients with renal impairment.
Q24When planning care for an elderly patient recently diagnosed with cognitive decline, which team member is typically responsible for coordinating long-term support options for the patient and their family?
✓ Correct answer: C. The geriatric care manager
Answer: The geriatric care manager Geriatric care managers play a vital role in monitoring the care plan and managing services for elderly patients. They liaison with healthcare providers, family members, and community resources to ensure comprehensive support for patients with cognitive decline. They coordinate long-term care options, integrating both medical and non-medical services as needed.
Q25Metformin is indicated for all of the following conditions except:
✓ Correct answer: A. Type 1 diabetes
Answer: Type 1 diabetes Metformin is primarily used to manage type 2 diabetes and is also effective for conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and prediabetes. It is not used for type 1 diabetes as it requires insulin therapy.
Q26A 65-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been prescribed metformin for over a year. What long-term effect should they be educated to monitor for?
✓ Correct answer: D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
Metformin is a common medication for managing type 2 diabetes, but prolonged use can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency due to its interference with B12 absorption in the intestines. Patients should monitor for symptoms of deficiency, such as fatigue and neuropathy, and periodically have their B12 levels checked. Rapid weight gain, hypercalcemia, and increased blood pressure are not typical long-term effects of metformin therapy.
Q27Identify the antihypertensive medication that is categorized as a beta blocker from the options below.
✓ Correct answer: C. Atenolol
Atenolol is a beta blocker, which works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic.
Q28A health care provider's DEA number is designed to:
✓ Correct answer: D. Allow the provider to issue prescriptions for controlled substances
The DEA number is a unique identifier for health care providers authorized by the Drug Enforcement Administration to prescribe controlled substances. It is critical for practitioners who provide these prescriptions.
Q29What is the primary key to ensuring patient compliance with treatment plans?
✓ Correct answer: A. Effective communication
Effective communication is key to ensuring patient compliance with treatment plans. Clear and open dialogue between healthcare providers and patients helps to clarify treatment goals, address concerns, and reinforce the importance of adherence to prescribed plans.
Q30What component of wound healing is most critical for the formation of new tissue?
✓ Correct answer: B. Collagen deposition
Collagen deposition is essential in wound healing as it provides a scaffold for the formation of new tissue and contributes to the strength and integrity of the newly healed area. Keratin proliferation, calcium build-up, and lipid barriers are not significant factors in tissue formation during wound healing.
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