ATLS practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q1Which of the following situations can make performing a lighted stylet intubation difficult?
✓ Correct answer: D. The patient recently vomited.
A lighted stylet intubation is the process of inserting an intubation tube using a lighted stylet as a guide. It guides the tube into the trachea by trans-illuminating the soft tissues in the throat. However, if the patient has recently vomited, the pathway to the trachea (mouth, throat, larynx), could be filled with fluid and debris, making it difficult for the tube to follow the light source into the trachea.
Q2The E from the LEMON stands for:
✓ Correct answer: C. Evaluate the 3-3-2 rule
The 3-3-2 rule is an evaluation tool for the forecasting of challenging intubations in unexpectedly challenging airways.
Q3Decide if the following sentence is true:<br/><br/>'Extraglottic devices sit under the larynx.'
✓ Correct answer: B. False
Another family of supraglottic devices that are inserted through the mouth and rest on top of the larynx is known as extraglottic devices.
Q4The amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled in one normal breathing cycle is called what?
✓ Correct answer: A. Tidal volume.
When measuring breathing and respiration, tidal volume is the measurement of air that is inhaled and then exhaled in a normal breathing cycle. The air measured that comes in and goes out is the total amount measured and tracked.
Q5What is the score on the Glasgow Coma Scale at which a patient is considered to be in a dead-brain state or in a deep coma?
✓ Correct answer: D. 3
The Glasgow Coma Scale's minimum score is 3, indicating a profound coma or brain death.
Q6If you do not know the effective biphasic dose range for the defibrillator that you are using, you should deliver a first shock and all subsequent shocks at <code>_________</code>.
✓ Correct answer: D. The maximal energy dose that is available
"If you do not know the effective dose range, deliver the maximal energy dose for the first and all subsequent shocks.
Q7Which one of the following is/are complication/complications of compartment syndrome?
✓ Correct answer: C. All of these
If the pressure is not relieved in the affected area the pressure can result in necrosis of tissue in that compartment, since capillary perfusion will fall leading to increasing oxygen deprivation of those tissues. As intercompartmental pressure rises during compartment syndrome, perfusion within the compartment is reduced leading to ischemia, which if left untreated, results in necrosis of nerves and muscles of the compartment.
Q8If using a <strong>monophasic defibrillator</strong> for Pulseless VF/VT the first dose and all subsequent doses should be <code>_______</code>J.
✓ Correct answer: D. 360
Even though monophasic defibrillators are becoming more and more uncommon there are still some available for use.
Q9Decide if the following sentence is true:<br/><br/>'Shock cannot be accurately diagnosed by a single vital sign or laboratory test.'
✓ Correct answer: B. True
A combination of clinical observations and laboratory tests is used to diagnose shock in trauma patients. Shock cannot be diagnosed with certainty by any one vital sign or laboratory test on its own.
Q10What happens during vasogenic shock?
✓ Correct answer: B. Cardiac output decreases, the heart muscle weakens, and venous pressure is unstable. Two examples are anaphylaxis and septic shock.
Vasogenic shock most frequently occurs with anaphylaxis and septic shock (toxic shock) from infection.Hemorrhagic shock results from hemorrhage or inadequate blood volume replacement. <br/><br/>Neurogenic shock is loss of vasomotor tone in peripheral blood vessels, leading to sudden vasodilation and pooling of blood. <br/><br/>Cardiogenic shock occurs when the pumping action of the left ventricle is insufficient to pump enough blood to vital organs.
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