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CFRN CTRN Flight Nurse Prep Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

CFRN CTRN Flight Nurse Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q11Which of the following is an increased physiologic risk factor for hypovolemic shock in infants, compared with adults?

    • AInfants have a faster blood clotting time
    • BInfants have a higher surface area-to-volume ratio
    • CInfants have a lower metabolic rate
    • DInfants have a lower proportion of body water
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Infants have a higher surface area-to-volume ratio

    Answer: Infants have a higher surface area-to-volume ratio. Infants are at a higher risk for hypovolemic shock compared to adults due to their higher surface area-to-volume ratio, which increases their susceptibility to fluid loss through the skin and dehydration. Additionally, infants rely heavily on their intravascular volume for maintaining blood pressure. In contrast, infants have a higher metabolic rate, higher proportion of body water, and do not necessarily have a faster blood clotting time compared to adults.

  2. Q12Which of the following congenital heart defects is one of the most commonly encountered when providing care for a pediatric patient experiencing cyanosis?

    • ACoarctation of the aorta
    • BTetralogy of Fallot
    • CAtrial septal defect
    • DPatent ductus arteriosus
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Tetralogy of Fallot

    Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot Tetralogy of Fallot is one of the most common congenital heart defects associated with cyanosis in pediatric patients. It consists of four anatomical abnormalities: ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. This combination of defects can result in poor oxygenation of blood due to a mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood within the heart and reduced blood flow to the lungs. Patients may present with cyanotic spells, fatigue, and difficulty breathing, particularly during feeding or physical activities.

  3. Q13At what gestational age is a baby considered pre-term?

    • ABetween 24-28 weeks
    • BBetween 38-41 weeks
    • CBefore 37 weeks
    • DAfter 42 weeks
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Before 37 weeks

    Answer: Before 37 weeks Babies are considered pre-term if they are born before 37 weeks of gestation. Full-term is between 38-41 weeks, and post-term is after 42 weeks.

  4. Q14A ground-based medical transport team has implemented policies regarding crew member and driver fatigue. Policies addressing fatigue for ground-based medical transport should:

    • AAddress the concern of driving while fatigued as severely as it does driving under the effects of alcohol
    • BRequire ground-based crew members and drivers to limit driving to 14 hours in a 24-hour period to minimize the effects of fatigue
    • CRecommend at least 8 hours of rest/sleep between each 24-hour shift to prevent the development of fatigue
    • DAllow crew members to decline transport missions for reasons of fatigue after they have completed at least 8 hours of driving in a 24-hour period
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Address the concern of driving while fatigued as severely as it does driving under the effects of alcohol

    Answer: Address the concern of driving while fatigued as severely as it does driving under the effects of alcohol Studies have shown that fatigue can impair driving performance as significantly as alcohol. Policies for ground-based medical transport should enforce regulations around fatigue as stringently as those for alcohol use, which typically include restrictions such as not driving within 8 hours of alcohol consumption or with a blood alcohol content (BAC) ≥ 0.04%. Ensuring such policies are in place is vital to maintain the safety and effectiveness of medical transport operations.

  5. Q15What is the recommended size of a safe landing zone for a helicopter in a residential area during an emergency?

    • A100 ft x 100 ft
    • B25 ft x 25 ft
    • C70 ft x 70 ft
    • D60 ft x 60 ft
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. 100 ft x 100 ft

    Generally, 100 ft x 100 ft is recommended as a safe landing zone for a helicopter in a residential area during an emergency. This size ensures sufficient space for the helicopter to land safely. The other options are too small and do not provide adequate safety margins.

  6. Q16During inter-facility transport, a patient begins to experience severe ear pain as the ambulance descends into a valley. You identify the problem as a middle ear barotrauma. What should you as the CFRN/CTRN do to manage this patient?

    • ABarotrauma is an emergent condition, and the patient needs immediate relief. Tell the driver to descend faster to reach the destination quickly.
    • BAdminister strong analgesics for pain relief
    • CStop the descent, administer decongestants, and descend gradually
    • DContinue to descend, barotrauma is not an emergency
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Stop the descent, administer decongestants, and descend gradually

    Answer: Stop the descent, administer decongestants, and descend gradually Middle ear barotrauma, also known as otic barotrauma, is caused by the inability of the ear to equalize pressure with the surrounding environment. It can be very painful and may lead to hearing loss or eardrum rupture if not properly managed. Treatment involves stopping the descent to prevent further pressure build-up, administering decongestants to facilitate ear drainage and pressure equalization, and resuming descent gradually.

  7. Q17You are the CFRN/CTRN caring for a patient being transported in an unpressurized aircraft. You are briefing the patient about hypoxia. Which of the following should be included in the briefing?

    • AYou should try to rest and take slower, deep breaths to manage symptoms.
    • BIf you experience symptoms, drink water to stay hydrated.
    • CInform the crew immediately, and we will descend to a lower altitude.
    • DYou should breathe supplemental oxygen if you begin to experience shortness of breath or dizziness.
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. You should breathe supplemental oxygen if you begin to experience shortness of breath or dizziness.

    Answer: You should breathe supplemental oxygen if you begin to experience shortness of breath or dizziness. Hypoxia is a condition caused by insufficient oxygen reaching the tissues and can occur at higher altitudes in unpressurized aircraft. The primary remedy for hypoxia is supplemental oxygen. Resting and breathing deeply can help, but supplemental oxygen is essential. Drinking water has no immediate effect on oxygen levels, and descending is not the first action to take.

  8. Q18Which of the following protocols should be adhered to during a medical helicopter's approach and departure from a hospital helipad?

    • AUsing intercom communication extensively to coordinate patient handover
    • BEnsuring all ground personnel wear sterile gloves and gowns
    • CRequiring the pilot to perform a full medical assessment before departing
    • DMinimizing all non-essential communication to ensure safety during critical phases of flight
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Minimizing all non-essential communication to ensure safety during critical phases of flight

    Answer: Minimizing all non-essential communication to ensure safety during critical phases of flight The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) mandates that a "sterile cockpit" be maintained during critical phases of flight operations, including the approach and departure from a helipad. This involves limiting intercom communication to essential information to enhance situational awareness and avoid distractions, ensuring a safe environment for both crew and patients. Normal communication can resume once the helicopter has safely landed or is en route in stable flight.

  9. Q19During the transport of a trauma patient with suspected spinal cord injury, the <strong>most important</strong> indicator of neurological deterioration is:

    • ALevel of consciousness
    • BBlood pressure
    • CHeart rate
    • DPupillary response
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Level of consciousness

    Answer: Level of consciousness The most important indicator of neurological deterioration in a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury is often the level of consciousness. Monitoring changes in the Glasgow Coma Scale score can provide critical information regarding the patient's neurological status. Other factors like blood pressure, heart rate, and pupillary response may be important, but changes in the level of consciousness are the most reliable indicator of neurological deterioration.

  10. Q20A patient involved in a motor vehicle accident exhibits hypotension, distended neck veins, clear lung sounds, and pulsus paradoxus. What is the most appropriate intervention?

    • AProvide positive pressure ventilation and prepare for intubation.
    • BEstablish IV access and administer a vasopressor.
    • CAdminister IV fluids and perform pericardiocentesis if hypotension persists.
    • DPerform needle thoracostomy and insert a chest tube.
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. Administer IV fluids and perform pericardiocentesis if hypotension persists.

    The correct intervention is to administer IV fluids to address hypotension and perform pericardiocentesis if the hypotension does not resolve. The patient is likely experiencing cardiac tamponade, characterized by hypotension, distended neck veins, and clear lung sounds, along with pulsus paradoxus. Removing fluid from the pericardial sac is necessary to improve cardiac output. Needle thoracostomy and chest tube placement are treatments for tension pneumothorax, while positive pressure ventilation and intubation are used for airway management or respiratory failure. Administering a vasopressor without addressing the underlying cause of hypotension may worsen the condition.

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