CFRN CTRN Flight Nurse Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q21All of the following components are part of the Revised Trauma Score (RTS) used to assess trauma patients, except:
✓ Correct answer: B. Temperature
Answer: Temperature The Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is a physiological scoring system used to assess the severity of injuries in trauma patients. This score is based on three components: the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), systolic blood pressure (SBP), and respiratory rate (RR). Temperature is not included in the RTS. Higher RTS scores are associated with improved survival rates in trauma patients.
Q22Which of the following is the most accurate for determining the severity of a traumatic brain injury in a pediatric patient?
✓ Correct answer: A. Pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale
Answer: Pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale. The Pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale (PGCS) is specifically designed to assess the level of consciousness in pediatric patients, taking into account developmental differences. The standard Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is less suitable for younger children. The AVPU scale is a simpler method that cannot capture the degree of severity as precisely as the PGCS. Lastly, the Revised Trauma Score is a more general assessment tool that is not as specialized for evaluating pediatric traumatic brain injuries.
Q23A 22-year-old female was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustained multiple injuries, including a penetrating wound to the chest with a metal rod. The air transport team is dispatched to transfer her due to the possible risk of cardiac tamponade. Upon arrival, the team observes the metal rod protruding from the chest wall in the vicinity of the right atrium. All of the following interventions should be included as routine care for this patient, except:
✓ Correct answer: C. Performance of a pericardiocentesis
Answer: Performance of a pericardiocentesis During the transport of patients with potential cardiac tamponade due to penetrating chest injuries, the transport team should focus on stabilizing the patient and preventing further injury. Routine procedures include immobilization on a backboard to prevent additional harm and maintaining stabilization of the penetrating object with bandages. Intravenous fluids should be started but given cautiously to avoid exacerbating any potential complications. Pericardiocentesis, although sometimes necessary in cases of cardiac tamponade, is a procedure that should only be performed by trained professionals in a controlled hospital environment unless it is a life-threatening emergency and no other options are available.
Q24What mnemonic device is most appropriate for a medical transport provider carrying out a primary assessment on a trauma patient involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision?
✓ Correct answer: D. ABCDE
Answer: ABCDE. The medical transport provider must complete both a primary and secondary assessment during the care of a trauma patient. If the patient's condition deteriorates at any point after the primary assessment has been completed, this assessment should be done again to stabilize the patient. The primary assessment's goal is to evaluate the patient's condition and identify any life-threatening factors. The mnemonic ABCDE is useful for ensuring all primary assessment components are addressed: A: Assess for airway patency and stabilize the cervical spine. B: Assess breathing and ventilation. C: Assess circulation and manage any hemorrhage. D: Assess the patient for disability (neurologic injury). E: Expose (undress) the patient to evaluate for any obscured, but life-threatening injuries. The mnemonics MARCH, START, and HEADS are used for different purposes. MARCH stands for massive hemorrhage, airway, respiration, circulation, and head injury/hypothermia. START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) is used for mass casualty triage, and HEADS is used to recall the steps in managing head injuries.
Q25Which of the following monitoring equipment is the best option for a critical care transport team with only basic training in cardiovascular pathophysiology and basic ECG interpretation?
✓ Correct answer: D. A monitor with fixed parameters for heart rate and lead selection
Answer: A monitor with fixed parameters for heart rate and lead selection Each critical care transport program should be equipped with monitoring equipment that is not only appropriate for the patients they serve but also commensurate with the training that the transport team has received. A transport team with only basic training in cardiovascular pathophysiology and basic ECG interpretation would be at risk of making errors if they were provided with sophisticated monitors that offer advanced arrhythmia detection, fully adjustable hemodynamic settings, or multiple lead types and waveform display options. A monitor with fixed parameters for heart rate and lead selection is the best option for a transport crew with limited cardiovascular and ECG interpretation training, as it minimizes the risk of errors.
Q26During the training session for medical air transport, the team discusses the appropriate use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). Which of the following patients would be best suited for CPAP during medical air transport?
✓ Correct answer: D. A patient experiencing acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema
Answer: A patient experiencing acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema The use of CPAP during medical air transport can be highly beneficial for patients with acute respiratory issues, such as acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. CPAP helps to keep the alveoli open and improves oxygenation, thereby reducing the work of breathing. Skilled crew members are essential to monitor and manage the safe delivery of CPAP, as well as ensure that the patient is receiving adequate support without any complications. CPAP should not be used for patients who are at risk for cardiac or respiratory arrest, those with unstable cardiac arrhythmias, those who are hemodynamically unstable, or those who have significant facial trauma or upper airway obstruction. Patients must also be able to protect their own airway to avoid the risk of aspiration.
Q27While transporting a patient by medical air transport, you notice the patient displays signs of severe metabolic alkalosis. After discussing with the attending physician, it is determined that the alkalosis is likely due to excessive vomiting. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for severe metabolic alkalosis in this scenario?
✓ Correct answer: C. Administration of intravenous hydrochloric acid
Answer: Administration of intravenous hydrochloric acid Severe metabolic alkalosis, often caused by prolonged vomiting, is best treated through the administration of intravenous hydrochloric acid. Administering bicarbonate is inappropriate as it can worsen alkalosis. Dialysis can be used for various poisoning cases but is not indicated here. Naloxone is used for opioid overdose, not metabolic alkalosis.
Q28You are using a waveform capnography device to confirm the correct placement of an endotracheal tube (ETT). All of the following statements regarding waveform capnography devices are true except:
✓ Correct answer: B. A flatline waveform confirms correct tube placement
Answer: A flatline waveform confirms correct tube placement Waveform capnography is a monitoring tool that provides continuous measurement of the concentration or partial pressure of $$CO_{2}$$ in the respiratory gases. It is displayed as a graph of expiratory $$CO_{2}$$ against time. A steady, recognizable waveform indicates correct ETT placement, while a flatline waveform suggests no $$CO_{2}$$ is detected, indicating potential issues such as esophageal intubation or dislodgement. The real-time feedback provided by waveform capnography helps improve patient outcomes by allowing rapid identification and correction of problems with the endotracheal tube.
Q29Which of the following patients should not receive an oropharyngeal airway?
✓ Correct answer: A. A 45-year-old male with multiple facial fractures from a car accident
Answer: A 45-year-old male with multiple facial fractures from a car accident The oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is used to maintain a patent airway in unconscious patients or those with a compromised airway. It helps to prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway. However, OPAs should not be used in individuals with facial trauma or injuries, as inserting the device can further compromise the airway or exacerbate fractures. Caution should be exercised to avoid causing additional harm or complications in such patients. Oropharyngeal airways are contraindicated in patients who have reflexes intact, such as gag reflex, as it can provoke vomiting, laryngospasm, or other airway obstructions.
Q30Which of the following is/are complications associated with administering Atropine too rapidly or in too high of a dosage?
✓ Correct answer: C. Tachycardia
Answer: Tachycardia The critical care transport provider should be aware that administering Atropine too quickly or in too high of a dose can lead to tachycardia. This can be problematic, especially in patients with preexisting cardiac conditions. Administering Atropine typically does not cause bradycardia, hypotension, or respiratory depression. It is commonly used to treat bradycardia and as an antidote for certain types of poisoning where increased heart rate is desired.
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