FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q11A normally healthy, middle-aged patient visits the clinic with a sudden onset of a persistent high heart rate at 130 bpm. There are no reported symptoms of fever, pain, or anxiety. What would be the most appropriate initial intervention for this patient?
✓ Correct answer: B. A prescription for a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker
Answer: A prescription for a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker Beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers are commonly used first-line treatments for managing tachycardia in patients without underlying significant comorbidities. Since this patient presents with a persistent high heart rate absent other complicating factors, these medications can help manage the condition effectively. Thiazide diuretics are primarily used for treating hypertension and would not be appropriate for the management of tachycardia in this scenario. Starting three different classes of medications is excessive and increases the risk of adverse effects without clear indication. Aldosterone receptor antagonists are used in patients with heart failure or those who have experienced myocardial infarction and are not indicated for patients with isolated tachycardia.
Q12A Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) is evaluating a 65-year-old female patient who reports a sudden onset of unilateral weakness and visual disturbances. The patient also experiences confusion and a severe headache. The FNP uses the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) and decides the patient needs immediate transportation to the emergency department. Which of the following assessments is key in determining the patient's condition using the CPSS?
✓ Correct answer: D. Facial droop
Answer: Facial droop Patients experiencing a potential stroke often exhibit facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty, which are critical components assessed using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS). The CPSS is a straightforward tool used by healthcare providers to quickly evaluate whether a patient may be having a stroke. To assess using the CPSS, the examiner asks the patient to: smile (checking for facial droop), raise both arms (checking for arm drift or weakness), and repeat a simple phrase (checking for speech abnormalities). Early recognition and prompt medical intervention are essential in improving stroke outcomes. Hence, observing facial droop, alongside assessing arm weakness and speech, is a rapid and reliable method for identifying a potential stroke.
Q13You are conducting a wellness check on a 29-year-old male patient. He reports being generally healthy over the past year, has no previous medical conditions, no history of surgery, does not smoke or consume alcohol, and has no family history of reproductive cancers. He further states that he has never engaged in any sexual activity and denies any testicular or genital symptoms today. His physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Regarding the guidelines for testicular cancer screening considering the patient's history and examination findings, you:
✓ Correct answer: C. Can opt not to perform testicular cancer screening
Answer: Can opt not to perform testicular cancer screening Current guidelines suggest that routine testicular cancer screening through clinical examination or self-examination is not recommended for asymptomatic men who have no risk factors, such as a family history of testicular cancer or previous history of undescended testis. For men who have never engaged in sexual activity and who do not exhibit any symptoms or risk factors for testicular cancer, the decision to undergo screening can be left to patient preference. If the patient opts for screening, it is also acceptable, but it is not mandatory for asymptomatic individuals with no risk factors.
Q14A 50-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism has been regularly seen at the primary care clinic for routine management. She adheres to her medication regimen and expresses concern about her energy levels, but has never mentioned concerns about managing her weight. Which of the following statements by the nurse practitioner regarding weight management is appropriate for this patient?
✓ Correct answer: B. "How do you feel about managing your weight?"
Answer: "How do you feel about managing your weight?" Nurse practitioners (NPs) providing care for patients with hypothyroidism or other endocrine disorders should inquire about the patient's readiness to address weight management at each visit. Patients may be unaware of how their weight influences their energy levels and overall health. Thus, it is essential to ask patients how they feel about managing their weight or if they have concerns regarding their weight. Inquiring about the patient's feelings helps to gauge their stage of change. For those in the pre-contemplation phase, where they haven't considered managing their weight yet, it's vital to prompt reflective thinking. Patients in the contemplation phase might need support in identifying and overcoming perceived barriers. NPs should offer tailored interventions based on the patient's readiness to change and provide ongoing support.
Q15A 7-year-old child presents to the family nurse practitioner in an outpatient clinic after accidentally getting sand in his eyes at the beach. Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following supplies are necessary to complete the ophthalmic examination?
✓ Correct answer: A. Fluorescein dye strips
Fluorescein dye strips are used for staining the anterior segment of the eye to examine for abrasions or corneal damage. In cases of sand or foreign body in the eye, fluorescein dye can help visualize any corneal abrasions caused by the particles. Intravenous fluorescein solution is used for fluorescein angiography, which is specific to diagnosing vascular disorders within the eye and not immediate injuries caused by a foreign body. Rose Bengal dye stains both healthy and unhealthy cells and is typically used for diagnosing conditions like Sjögren's syndrome or dry eye. Lissamine green dye strips are occasionally used to diagnose dry eye conditions but are not as effective for identifying abrasions or immediate injuries.
Q16A 32-year-old female comes to your family practice clinic for advice on contraception options. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) 2 years ago, currently has a BMI of 29, and plans to start trying for pregnancy in one year. She does not smoke and has a normal blood pressure today. Based on the U.S. Medical Eligibility Criteria (USMEC) for Contraceptive Use guidelines, which of the following birth control methods should be avoided?
✓ Correct answer: D. Combined hormonal contraceptives (CHCs)
Answer: Combined hormonal contraceptives (CHCs) For women with a history of DVT, the use of Combined Hormonal Contraceptives (CHCs) is classified as category 4 in the USMEC guidelines, indicating an unacceptable health risk. The estrogen component in CHCs increases the risk of thrombosis, making it a contraindicated option for this patient. Instead, alternative methods like progesterone-only pills (POPs), levonorgestrel (LNG) intrauterine devices (IUDs), and etonogestrel contraceptive implants are safer and more appropriate options.
Q17You are evaluating a patient who presents with acute onset of flank pain, fever, and dysuria. Which of the following diagnostic findings would be MOST indicative of nephrolithiasis?
✓ Correct answer: B. Hematuria
Answer: Hematuria Hematuria is a key finding associated with nephrolithiasis (kidney stones). Patients commonly present with acute onset of severe flank pain, which can radiate to the lower abdomen or groin. Other symptoms include nausea and vomiting. Hematuria is the most specific finding, often seen in up to 85% of cases. Proteinuria, bacteriuria, and glucosuria are not typically associated with nephrolithiasis. Proteinuria is more indicative of glomerulonephritis or nephrotic syndrome. Bacteriuria suggests a urinary tract infection, while glucosuria is generally related to diabetes mellitus.
Q18A 32-year-old male presents to the clinic with knee pain following a soccer injury. During the physical exam, the practitioner performs the Lachman test and notes a positive sign. Which of the following most closely describes a positive Lachman sign?
✓ Correct answer: C. With the patient supine and the knee flexed at 20-30 degrees, the practitioner's one hand stabilizes the distal femur while the other hand applies anterior force to the proximal tibia. A positive sign is indicated by significant anterior translation of the tibia compared to the femur, demonstrating anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) laxity.
Answer: With the patient supine and the knee flexed at 20-30 degrees, the practitioner's one hand stabilizes the distal femur while the other hand applies anterior force to the proximal tibia. A positive sign is indicated by significant anterior translation of the tibia compared to the femur, demonstrating anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) laxity. The Lachman test is one of the most sensitive and specific maneuvers for detecting anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries. A positive Lachman sign, which is characterized by significant anterior translation of the tibia compared to the femur, is suggestive of ACL injury. Other tests for evaluating knee injuries include the Thompson test for Achilles tendon rupture and the Anterior Drawer test for ACL injuries. However, the Lachman test provides a more accurate assessment of ACL injury.
Q19A 60-year-old patient with chronic liver disease is prescribed a new medication for high blood pressure. Which of the following angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be avoided in this patient due to its high rate of hepatic metabolism?
✓ Correct answer: B. Captopril (Capoten)
Captopril (Capoten) is highly metabolized by the liver, making it unsuitable for patients with chronic liver disease due to the risk of impaired metabolism and toxicity. Other ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), enalapril (Vasotec), and ramipril (Altace) do not have such a high rate of hepatic metabolism and are safer choices in such patients.
Q20In patients diagnosed with asthma, which of the following symptoms is most commonly reported during an acute exacerbation?
✓ Correct answer: A. Wheezing
Answer: Wheezing Asthma is a common respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, which can result in difficulty breathing. During an acute exacerbation, more than 90% of patients typically present with wheezing. Other common symptoms include coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath. Early recognition and management are essential to prevent severe outcomes.
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