FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q21Your 50-year-old male patient presents with a complaint of severe upper abdominal pain radiating to his back. Which further information would best indicate the presence of pancreatitis?
✓ Correct answer: C. Elevated serum lipase levels
Answer: Elevated serum lipase levels Elevated serum lipase levels are a hallmark of pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas and it often presents with severe upper abdominal pain radiating to the back. Causes include gallstones, chronic alcohol use, and certain medications. Absence of bowel sounds can be associated with bowel obstruction, while increased liver enzymes and the presence of jaundice are more indicative of liver-related disorders.
Q22A nurse practitioner (NP) assesses a patient who reports experiencing sudden, unilateral facial pain that is sharp and electric shock-like in nature. The pain is primarily localized around the jaw and teeth, often triggered by touch or chewing, and lasts for seconds to minutes. The NP suspects trigeminal neuralgia as the diagnosis. Which of the following patients is most likely to be affected by trigeminal neuralgia?
✓ Correct answer: A. A 58-year-old Caucasian female with a history of multiple sclerosis (MS)
Answer: A 58-year-old Caucasian female with a history of multiple sclerosis (MS) Trigeminal neuralgia is more commonly observed in females and typically affects individuals over the age of 50. In patients with multiple sclerosis (MS), the prevalence of this condition is higher due to demyelination affecting the trigeminal nerve pathways. It is characterized by sudden, brief, and intense episodes of sharp, electric shock-like pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve (usually the jaw and teeth). Factors such as touch, chewing, or even light stimuli can trigger these pain episodes. Typical treatment options include anticonvulsant medications or surgical intervention.
Q23A 28-year-old heterosexual female presents with symptoms of acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered?
✓ Correct answer: C. Gonorrhea and chlamydia testing
Answer: Gonorrhea and chlamydia testing Acute pelvic inflammatory disease manifests with pelvic pain, abdominal tenderness, fever, and cervical motion tenderness. In heterosexual women younger than 35 years of age, PID is typically caused by sexually transmitted infections, such as gonorrhea or chlamydia. A urethral swab or nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) should be performed to rule out these infections. If the patient has systemic symptoms, such as fever or myalgia, a blood culture should be considered. The performance of, or referral for, syphilis and HIV testing may be indicated if testing is positive for a sexually transmitted organism, such as _Chlamydia trachomatis_ or _Neiserria gonorrhoeae_. A pelvic ultrasound may be used to rule out other causes of pelvic pain but is not specific for diagnosing PID. Radiologic studies are generally not indicated in the diagnosis of acute PID.
Q24A 28-year-old female presents with severe dysmenorrhea that occurs only during her menstrual period. Which of the following treatments may be effective in managing her symptoms?
✓ Correct answer: A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Answer: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) NSAIDs are considered first-line agents for managing dysmenorrhea as they reduce the production of prostaglandins, thus decreasing uterine contractions, pain, and inflammation. Acetaminophen may be less effective compared to NSAIDs in reducing menstrual pain. Antidepressants and anxiolytics are not typically used as first-line treatments for dysmenorrhea.
Q25A nurse practitioner (NP) is assessing the blood glucose levels of several patients seen in the clinic last week. Which of the following lab results is most likely indicative of prediabetes?
✓ Correct answer: A. Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL (70 to 99 mg/dL), and HbA1c 6.0% (4.0 to 5.6%)
Answer: Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL (70 to 99 mg/dL), and HbA1c 6.0% (4.0 to 5.6%) Prediabetes is identified with fasting blood glucose levels between 100 to 125 mg/dL and HbA1c levels between 5.7% to 6.4%. Approximately 88 million American adults—more than 1 in 3—have prediabetes. If lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise are made, 58% of individuals with prediabetes can prevent the progression to type 2 diabetes. Individuals with prediabetes are at increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease, insulin resistance, and Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Fasting blood glucose 135 mg/dL (70 to 99 mg/dL), and HbA1c 7.5% (4.0 to 5.6%) indicates diabetes. Fasting blood glucose 85 mg/dL (70 to 99 mg/dL), and HbA1c 5.0% (4.0 to 5.6%) is considered normal. Fasting blood glucose 65 mg/dL (70 to 99 mg/dL), and HbA1c 3.8% (4.0 to 5.6%) indicates hypoglycemia.
Q26During a diagnostic workup of a patient with symptoms of asthma, which of the following statements is true?
✓ Correct answer: D. Asthma is diagnosed primarily through clinical evaluation and pulmonary function tests.
Answer: Asthma is diagnosed primarily through clinical evaluation and pulmonary function tests. Asthma is usually diagnosed based on clinical findings such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are essential in the diagnosis as they help measure the extent of airway obstruction. These include spirometry and peak expiratory flow rate measurements. Chest X-rays and CT scans are typically not used as primary diagnostic tools for asthma but may be used to rule out other conditions. Blood tests are not commonly used to diagnose asthma as they do not provide direct information on airway function.
Q27A 25-year-old female presents to your clinic with sudden, sharp lower abdominal pain on the right side that started during her workout. She rated the pain as severe and states it has not improved with rest. She reports experiencing similar pain on and off in the past, which resolved on its own. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct answer: C. Ovarian torsion
Answer: Ovarian torsion Ovarian torsion is a gynecological emergency typically seen in women of reproductive age. It occurs when an ovary twists around the ligaments that support it, potentially cutting off blood flow. Symptoms include acute onset of severe unilateral lower abdominal pain that is often sudden and not relieved by rest or position changes. Intermittent pain episodes may be reported in the history. Ectopic pregnancy may present with similar pain, but it is often accompanied by vaginal bleeding and a positive pregnancy test. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) usually presents with lower abdominal pain and may also include fever, abnormal vaginal discharge, and pain with intercourse. Appendicitis presents with right lower quadrant pain, which typically starts near the belly button and moves to the lower right side, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.
Q28A patient presents with chest pain and you observe an EKG tracing with ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion. Based on this EKG finding, where is the most likely location of myocardial ischemia?
✓ Correct answer: B. Subendocardium
Answer: Subendocardium ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion on an EKG are indicative of myocardial ischemia. Myocardial ischemia occurs when blood flow to the heart muscle is reduced, causing a lack of oxygen supply. This often affects the inner layer of the heart muscle, known as the subendocardium, first because it is farthest from the coronary arteries. Ischemia in the subendocardium presents on an EKG as ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion, distinguishable from epicardial or transmural ischemia, which might show ST-segment elevation. Ischemia affecting the epicardium may present as ST-segment elevation, while pericardial involvement typically presents with findings suggestive of pericarditis, such as diffuse ST-segment elevation and PR-segment depression. Generalized hypoperfusion affecting the myocardium may lead to non-specific changes on the EKG.
Q29A 35-year-old female presents with a painful, erythematous area on her left forearm. Physical examination reveals several pustular lesions within the affected area. She mentions that she recently completed a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection but has no other significant medical history. What other factor(s) would heighten your suspicion of community-acquired methicillin-resistant $$S. aureus$$ (CA-MRSA)?
✓ Correct answer: D. Living in a residential care facility and working as a gym instructor
Answer: Living in a residential care facility and working as a gym instructor CA-MRSA infections are commonly found in healthy individuals and are more prevalent in those living in crowded settings like dormitories or residential care facilities. Participation in activities that involve close physical contact, such as working in a gym, also increases the risk. Other risk factors include previous antibiotic usage, certain ethnic backgrounds, and exposure to infected individuals.
Q30A 45-year-old male presents with auditory symptoms including ringing in the ear (tinnitus), followed by occasional dizziness, and progressive hearing loss over the past month. His medical history is significant for an autoimmune disorder. Imaging studies reveal an issue with the eighth cranial nerve. Which of the following auditory disorders is most likely associated with these symptoms?
✓ Correct answer: D. Meniere's disease
Answer: Meniere's disease Meniere's disease is characterized by episodes of tinnitus, vertigo, and fluctuating hearing loss. It is caused by the accumulation of endolymphatic fluid in the inner ear, and it commonly affects individuals with a history of autoimmune disorders. Dysfunction of the eighth cranial nerve is identified as a hallmark of this condition. Otitis media typically involves infection and fluid accumulation in the middle ear, unrelated to eighth cranial nerve issues. An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve but does not present with the classic episodic symptoms of Meniere's disease. Presbycusis is age-related gradual hearing loss, not associated with tinnitus and vertigo.
Use the free FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep sample, download the PDF, then unlock web-based timed mock exams for a full exam rehearsal.
Theory