NPTE-PT Physio Exam Prep practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.
Q21A physical therapist is assessing a patient in an outpatient clinic. During the assessment, the therapist asks the patient to lie on their side and abduct the upper leg. Which of the following MOST likely indicates weakness of the gluteus medius?
✓ Correct answer: A. Inability to maintain leg position against resistance
Answer: Inability to maintain leg position against resistance. Weakness of the gluteus medius is often assessed by having the patient abduct their leg against resistance. If the gluteus medius is weak, the patient will be unable to hold the leg in an abducted position. Contralateral hip drop is more indicative of a Trendelenburg sign during single-leg stance. Loss of balance and leg pain may occur but do not directly indicate gluteus medius weakness.
Q22A physical therapist has a patient lying on their stomach with their knees extended. The therapist passively flexes one knee and extends the hip until the patient complains of anterior thigh symptoms. The therapist then gently releases the flexed knee slightly until the symptoms decrease and subsequently extends the patient's knee further. What is the MOST likely test being performed?
✓ Correct answer: B. Femoral nerve traction test
Answer: Femoral nerve traction test The femoral nerve traction test is performed with the patient in a prone position to identify compression of the femoral nerve. The test involves passively flexing the patient's knee while extending the hip to elicit symptoms associated with femoral nerve tension. If extending the knee further while reducing hip extension reproduces the patient's pathological symptoms, this confirms the presence of nerve involvement. Lasegue's test (or straight leg raise test) involves assessing for neurological involvement in the lower limbs with the patient in a supine position. The Schober test measures the lumbar spine's mobility. The slump test identifies dysfunction of the neurological structures supplying the lower limb with the patient seated.
Q23A physical therapist is evaluating a patient who experienced a significant fall from a ladder three days ago. During the examination, the therapist performs the Sharp-Purser test. Which of the following indicates a positive finding for this test?
✓ Correct answer: B. A clunking sensation or reduction in symptoms
Answer: A clunking sensation or reduction in symptoms A clunking sensation or reduction in symptoms is a positive finding of the Sharp-Purser test. This test is used to determine the integrity of the transverse ligament, which can be compromised following severe trauma such as a significant fall. The inability to palpate C2 moving in conjunction with C1 is a positive finding of the alar ligament test. Electrical pain down the spine is a positive finding for Lhermitte's sign, indicating spinal cord or upper motor neuron dysfunction. A decrease in neck pain upon neck traction indicates a positive distraction test, identifying neural compression at the intervertebral foramen or facet dysfunction.
Q24A physical therapist is evaluating a patient who complains of hip joint pain and restricted movement in an outpatient clinic. During the physical exam, how should the therapist BEST assess the anterior movement of the patient's femur in relation to the acetabulum?
✓ Correct answer: A. FADDIR test
Answer: FADDIR test The FADDIR test (Flexion, ADduction, and Internal Rotation) is conducted to assess the anterior movement of the femur in relation to the acetabulum, typically used to identify femoroacetabular impingement. The FABER test (Flexion, ABduction, and External Rotation) is used to detect hip joint or sacroiliac joint abnormalities. The Thomas test is used to assess hip flexor tightness. Ober's test is used to evaluate tightness in the iliotibial band.
Q25You are conducting a physical therapy assessment on a 30-year-old male patient. The patient mentions sudden onset of knee pain following an awkward landing during a basketball game two days ago. During the examination, you observe that the patient experiences significant pain and instability when attempting to fully extend their knee. Based on this information, which special knee test would MOST likely be used to assess the injury?
✓ Correct answer: D. Lachman test
Answer: Lachman test The Lachman test is a special knee test used to assess the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). It is performed by assessing the amount of anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur. A positive Lachman test indicates an ACL tear, which could explain the patient's symptoms of pain and instability when attempting to extend their knee. The McMurray test is used to identify meniscal tears. The patellar grind test is used to assess patellofemoral pain syndrome and chondromalacia patella. Ober's test is performed to evaluate iliotibial band tightness.
Q26You are assessing a patient who sustained a fall directly onto the shoulder. During the physical examination, you notice that the patient is unable to initiate shoulder abduction. Which of the following rotator cuff muscles is MOST likely affected?
✓ Correct answer: C. Supraspinatus
Answer: Supraspinatus The supraspinatus muscle is primarily responsible for the initiation of shoulder abduction. Given the patient's recent history of a fall onto the shoulder, a tear or injury to the supraspinatus tendon is likely. The infraspinatus muscle aids in external rotation of the shoulder. The teres minor assists with shoulder external rotation and adduction. The subscapularis muscle is responsible for internal rotation of the shoulder.
Q27During a routine checkup, a 70-year-old male patient in a nursing home exhibits a noticeably thickened fold of skin on the back of his left hand. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct answer: D. Primary lymphedema
Answer: Primary lymphedema A thickened fold of skin, especially at specific locations like the back of the hand, suggests primary lymphedema. This is identified by the presence of Stemmer's sign. Psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly patches typically on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Scleroderma involves the tightening and hardening of the skin. Dermatitis describes skin inflammation and itching, often due to an allergic reaction.
Q28A patient arrives at the clinic with a large laceration that has penetrated the dermis, resulting in significant bleeding. Given this injury, which is the LEAST likely systemic function to be directly impaired?
✓ Correct answer: C. Digestive enzyme production
Answer: Digestive enzyme production The skin plays a crucial role in several body functions, including blood clotting, body temperature regulation, and maintaining fluid balance through sweat and barrier functions. Digestive enzyme production, on the other hand, primarily involves the digestive system organs and is not directly connected to skin function.
Q29A 40-year-old patient presents with difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech following a stroke. During assessment, the physical therapist observes that the patient is unable to coordinate movements of the lips, tongue, and soft palate. Which of the following terms BEST describes this symptom?
✓ Correct answer: A. Dysarthria
Answer: Dysarthria Dysarthria occurs when a person's speech production is impaired due to central or peripheral nervous system damage. It can present as weakness, paralysis, or incoordination of the motor-speech system (respiration, articulation, phonation, and movements of the jaw, tongue, lips, and soft palate). Fluent aphasia is a central language disorder in which the patient is able to speak fluently, but auditory comprehension is impaired. Nonfluent aphasia is the result of a lesion involving the third frontal convolution of the left hemisphere, also called Broca's area. Patients with this condition speak awkwardly and with great effort. Verbal apraxia is the impairment of volitional articulatory control secondary to a cortical, dominant hemisphere lesion.
Q30You are treating a patient in an outpatient clinic who has reported altered sensation in their medial thigh. Upon performing a neurological examination, you suspect an issue with the nerve roots associated with the obturator nerve. From which nerve roots does the obturator nerve arise?
✓ Correct answer: D. L2 through L4
Answer: L2 through L4 The obturator nerve arises from the anterior divisions of the L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots within the lumbar plexus. It supplies the medial compartment of the thigh, which explains the patient's symptoms. Here’s a breakdown of the spinal nerve plexuses and their corresponding nerve roots: Plexus Nerve Roots Cervical C1 through C4 Brachial C5 through T1 Lumbar T12 through L4 Sacral L4 through S3
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