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PMHNP Nurse Boards Prep 2026 Exam Questions & Answers (11–20)

PMHNP Nurse Boards Prep 2026 practice questions and answers. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q11When working with a client who has depression, which of the following is a fundamental element of depressive thinking, according to Beck's cognitive theory of depression?

    • AEmotional reasoning
    • BPersonalization
    • CCatastrophizing
    • DOvergeneralization
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. Catastrophizing

    Beck's cognitive theory of depression suggests that depressive thinking consists of negative and distorted thought patterns that contribute to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and helplessness. Catastrophizing is a core component of depressive thinking and involves exaggerating the negative consequences of a situation while downplaying any positive aspects. Overgeneralization refers to drawing broad and negative conclusions based on limited information. Emotional reasoning involves using one's emotions as evidence to support a belief rather than relying on facts. Personalization involves taking responsibility for negative events that are beyond one's control

  2. Q12What is the hormone imbalance that is most likely to result in a depressed patient waking up early in the morning?

    • AIncreased testosterone
    • BIncreased cortisol
    • CDecreased cortisol
    • DIncreased catecholamine
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Increased cortisol

    A heightened level of cortisol is frequently observed in individuals suffering from depression, leading to early morning awakening. In contrast, both catecholamines and testosterone tend to be reduced in individuals with depression

  3. Q13If a patient is displaying disorganized thinking, loose associations, tics, and stereotypic behavior, which neurotransmitter is likely to be in excess?

    • ASerotonin
    • BAcetylcholine
    • CNorepinephrine
    • DDopamine
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Dopamine

    When there is an excess of dopamine, it can lead to symptoms such as disorganized thinking, loose associations, tics, and stereotypic behavior. On the other hand, a dopamine deficit can result in symptoms of Parkinson's disease, endocrine alterations, poor spatiality, and lack of abstract thought. An excess of serotonin, on the other hand, can cause restlessness, agitation, myoclonus, and vital sign abnormalities. An excess of acetylcholine can lead to over-inhibition, anxiety, somatic complaints, self-consciousness, and drooling. Finally, an excess of norepinephrine can result in hyperalertness, paranoia, and decreased appetite

  4. Q14A patient presents with symptoms consistent with frontal lobe dementia, which include a lack of restraint, indifference, and challenges with arranging and coordinating tasks. The psychiatric nurse practitioner should suspect and conduct further evaluation for which of the following conditions?

    • AFrontotemporal dementia
    • BAlzheimer's Disease
    • CHuntington's Disease
    • DParkinson's Disease
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Frontotemporal dementia

    Frontotemporal dementia, also referred to as frontal lobe dementia, is a form of dementia that impacts the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. This results in symptoms like a lack of restraint, indifference, and difficulties with arranging and coordinating tasks. These symptoms vary from those observed in Alzheimer's disease, Huntington's disease, and Parkinson's disease, which primarily affect memory, movement, and cognitive function, respectively

  5. Q15Which of the following treatment options is not included in the pharmacological management of social anxiety (phobia) disorder?

    • ASSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
    • BShort-term benzodiazepines
    • CBeta-blockers
    • DAnticonvulsants
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: D. Anticonvulsants

    Anticonvulsants are not typically used as a first-line treatment for social anxiety (phobia) disorder. While they can be beneficial in stabilizing mood disorders like bipolar and depression, they are not specifically indicated for social anxiety disorder. The other treatment options mentioned - SSRIs, short-term benzodiazepines, and beta-blockers - are all commonly used in the management of social anxiety (phobia) disorder

  6. Q16A patient is prescribed memantine to address moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease. The PMHNP is knowledgeable about the prescribing guidelines for memantine. Which of the following medications is frequently prescribed alongside memantine?

    • AIt should be utilized in conjunction with an antidepressant
    • BIt should be utilized in conjunction with an antipsychotic
    • CIt should be utilized in conjunction with a cholinesterase inhibitor
    • DIt should be utilized as a standalone treatment
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. It should be utilized in conjunction with a cholinesterase inhibitor

    Memantine is an FDA-approved N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist for the management of moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease. It functions by regulating the activity of a neurotransmitter known as glutamate, which plays a role in learning and memory. The prescribing guidelines for memantine recommend combining it with a cholinesterase inhibitor, as research has demonstrated that this combination is more effective than monotherapy in treating moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease. Memantine should not be used as a standalone treatment. Additionally, it should not be used in conjunction with an antidepressant or antipsychotic, as these are not evidence-based treatment options for Alzheimer's disease

  7. Q17Which statement best describes managed care?

    • AAn established organization that offers a network of preferred healthcare providers
    • BA system where the insurance company reimburses healthcare providers for the services they render
    • CManaged care is a system where the insurance company not only pays for healthcare but also provides the healthcare services
    • DA traditional payment model based on fees for each service provided
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. Managed care is a system where the insurance company not only pays for healthcare but also provides the healthcare services

    Managed care is a system in which the insurance company not only pays for healthcare but also provides the healthcare services. Before managed care, insurance companies would simply reimburse healthcare providers for the services they rendered, without any control over the quality or quantity of care. In a managed care system, the insurance company monitors the utilization and cost of healthcare services. They agree to pay a fixed fee for each patient, regardless of the services required, which means that the healthcare provider shares in the financial risk. This system incentivizes insurance companies and healthcare providers to deliver the highest quality care

  8. Q18What is the term that refers to a procedure implemented to safeguard the public by ensuring a minimum level of professional competency?

    • ARegistration
    • BCredentialing
    • CLicensure
    • DCertification
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Credentialing

    Credentialing is a procedure put in place to protect the public by guaranteeing a minimum level of professional competency. Licensure is a procedure in which a state government agency grants permission to individuals to practice a specific profession. Licensure prevents any unlicensed individuals from engaging in a legally protected practice. Certification is a procedure in which a professional organization certifies that an individual has met specific predetermined standards set by the specialty practice. The certification of a nurse practitioner determines their scope of practice and assures the public that they have acquired a comprehensive understanding of a particular medical specialty. Registration is not relevant to this subject matter

  9. Q19What is the most accurate definition of an insurance benefit?

    • AIt occurs when an insurance company refuses to cover a bill due to unmet required conditions
    • BIt refers to the payment made by the insurance company when the insured experiences a loss
    • CIt signifies a request made to the insurance company for payment in the event of a loss
    • DIt represents the criteria established by an insurance company to authorize specific healthcare services before they are provided
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: B. It refers to the payment made by the insurance company when the insured experiences a loss

    An insurance benefit refers to the payment made by the insurance company when the insured experiences a loss. A claim is a formal request made to the insurance company for payment in the event of a loss. Pre-approval refers to the criteria established by an insurance company to authorize specific healthcare services before they are provided. Denying the claim happens when an insurance company refuses to cover a bill due to unmet required conditions

  10. Q20Which of the following statements is true regarding the nurse practitioner's ability to prescribe controlled substances?

    • AA separate controlled substance license is required for NPs in all states
    • BNPs licensed in states that do not allow prescribing of controlled substances will not receive DEA numbers from the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
    • CThe NPs ability to prescribe controlled substances is determined by DEA regulations
    • DIndividual office/practice protocols are overridden by the regulations of the state regarding the NP's prescriptive authority
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: B. NPs licensed in states that do not allow prescribing of controlled substances will not receive DEA numbers from the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

    The nurse practitioner's ability to prescribe controlled substances, known as prescriptive authority, varies from state to state and can be further restricted by protocols or policies of the specific practice where the NP is employed. Even in states that grant full prescriptive authority to NPs, the NP's ability to prescribe controlled substances may still be limited if the practice has protocols or policies that restrict the NP's prescribing rights beyond what the state allows. In such cases, the NP must adhere to the protocols or policies set by their employer. While each state determines the extent of prescriptive privileges for NPs licensed within their jurisdiction, the DEA also oversees the licensing process for NPs. The DEA will deny DEA licensing to any NP licensed to practice in a state that does not grant NPs the authority to prescribe controlled substances

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