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PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (1–10)

PTCE Pharmacy Tech Practice 20 practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q1Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required on a medication administration record (MAR)?

    • APatient's identification number
    • BDrug's trade or generic name
    • CDosage and administration instructions
    • DPharmacy's phone number
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Pharmacy's phone number

    Answer: Pharmacy's phone number The pharmacy's phone number is not a piece of information required on a medication administration record (MAR). The following information is required on a MAR: Required Information Patient's identification number Drug's trade or generic name Dosage and administration instructions Date and time of administration Initials or signature of administering personnel

  2. Q2Which of the following medications is indicated only to treat asthma?

    • AMontelukast
    • BAlbuterol
    • CFluticasone
    • DIpratropium
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Montelukast

    Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used exclusively for the maintenance treatment of asthma. It is not a rescue medication and is not used for treating other conditions. Albuterol, fluticasone, and ipratropium can be used to treat other respiratory conditions, including COPD.

  3. Q3Which of the following best describes Schedule I drugs under the Controlled Substances Act?

    • ADrugs with low potential for abuse and accepted medical use
    • BDrugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence
    • CDrugs with a high potential for abuse with medical use under strict regulation
    • DDrugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    Answer: Drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse Schedule I drugs under the Controlled Substances Act are defined as substances that have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use. Examples include heroin and LSD. Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but have accepted medical uses, sometimes with severe restrictions. Schedule III drugs have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Schedule IV drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to Schedule III and Schedule V drugs have a lower potential for abuse relative to Schedule IV.

  4. Q4A physician orders the following: Medication Sig Dispense Acetaminophen Elixir Take 4 tsp PO q6h 8 oz How many milliliter(s) will the patient be taking for each dose?

    • A40 mL
    • B20 mL
    • C5 mL
    • D12 mL
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. 20 mL

    Answer: 20 mL When converting teaspoons (tsp) to milliliters (mL), you need to use the conversion factor that 1 teaspoon is equivalent to 5 milliliters (1 tsp = 5 mL). Thus, 4 tsp × 5 mL/tsp = 20 mL. 1 teaspoon (tsp) = 5 mL

  5. Q5For which of the following medications must a patient be advised to avoid consuming grapefruit juice due to potential drug interaction?

    • ASimvastatin
    • BLisinopril
    • CMetformin
    • DLevothyroxine
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Simvastatin

    Answer: Simvastatin Simvastatin is a statin used to control cholesterol levels. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that can interfere with enzymes (specifically CYP3A4) in the small intestine, leading to higher levels of simvastatin in the bloodstream, which can increase the risk of side effects such as muscle pain and liver damage. Therefore, it is important for patients taking simvastatin to avoid consuming grapefruit juice. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure, and it does not interact with grapefruit juice. Metformin is a medication for type 2 diabetes that regulates blood sugar levels, and it also does not interact with grapefruit juice. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, and it does not have a known interaction with grapefruit juice.

  6. Q6Which chronic liver condition is often the result of long-term alcohol abuse?

    • AHepatitis
    • BFatty liver disease
    • CPancreatitis
    • DCirrhosis
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Cirrhosis

    Answer: Cirrhosis Cirrhosis is a severe liver condition marked by the replacement of healthy liver tissue with scar tissue due to chronic alcohol abuse or other factors. Hepatitis is characterized by liver inflammation caused by viral infection or toxin exposure. It can be acute or chronic. Fatty liver disease occurs when fat builds up in the liver, often related to obesity or alcohol abuse, and can lead to cirrhosis if not managed. Pancreatitis is the inflammation of the pancreas, which can also be linked to chronic alcohol abuse but is not primarily a liver condition.

  7. Q7What are the key elements of ensuring safe and accurate medication dispensing in a pharmacy?

    • ARight patient, right dose, right time, right insurance, right medication
    • BRight insurance, right patient, right medication, right time, right dose
    • CRight patient, right medication, right dose, right form, and right documentation
    • DRight time, right insurance, right medication, right documentation, right form
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. Right patient, right medication, right dose, right form, and right documentation

    Answer: Right patient, right medication, right dose, right form, and right documentation The key elements to ensuring safe and accurate medication dispensing in a pharmacy include verifying the right patient, ensuring the right medication, confirming the right dose, choosing the right form, and keeping proper documentation. These measures help ensure that the correct patient receives the correct medication in the correct manner. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the essential elements required for safe and accurate medication dispensing.

  8. Q8Which of the following classes of drugs may decrease the efficacy of anticoagulants?

    • AAntidepressants
    • BAntibiotics
    • CAntihistamines
    • DNSAIDs
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Antibiotics

    Answer: Antibiotics Antibiotics may decrease the efficacy of anticoagulants. Other drug classes that interact with anticoagulants include antifungals, anticonvulsants, cardiovascular drugs, and certain over-the-counter medications. Antihistamines, NSAIDs, and antidepressants are not known to decrease the efficacy of anticoagulants.

  9. Q9Which of the following antibiotics should be taken on an empty stomach?

    • AAzithromycin
    • BAmoxicillin
    • CCephalexin
    • DDoxycycline
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Azithromycin

    Answer: Azithromycin Azithromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, should be taken on an empty stomach. It is best absorbed when taken at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. In contrast, amoxicillin, cephalexin, and doxycycline can be taken with or without food.

  10. Q10Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat high blood pressure. When is it best for a patient to take losartan?

    • AAt night
    • BBefore meals
    • CAfter meals
    • DIn the morning
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: D. In the morning

    Answer: In the morning It is generally recommended for patients to take losartan in the morning. This is due to its blood pressure-lowering effects, which can help manage blood pressure during the day. It is not best for patients to take losartan at night, before meals, or after meals.

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