FNP Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

Question 1

Susan is having surgery to her colon.

Which type of surgical wound will this surgery likely cause?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Class II. The correct answer is B) Class II.

Surgeries to the intestines is likely to cause a Class II surgical wound because the wounds are close to areas that increase the risk of infection such as the intestines and colon.

Question 2

Tolerance for a drug is a sign of what?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Substance dependency. The correct answer is C) Substance dependency.

There are many symptoms of substance dependency, including developing a tolerance for the drug.

Question 3

Dry, red lesions with a rough texture that are a precursor for squamous cell carcinoma are which of the following?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Actinic keratoses. The correct answer is D) Actinic keratoses.

Actinic keratoses are precursor lesions of squamous cell carcinoma. They are located in sun-exposed areas of skin and are diagnosed by skin biopsy and clinical appearance.

Question 4

Which type of surgical wound is considered clean-contaminated because there are no signs of contamination but the wound is in a location on the body that has an increased risk for getting infected?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Class II. The correct answer is B) Class II.

Class II surgical wounds are considered clean-contaminated because they are very clean but they have increased risk of infection because of their location, such as near the reproductive organs.

Question 5

When assessing the patient with unstable angina, the nurse practitioner knows that the causes include all of the following EXCEPT:

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Ventricular hypertrophy. The correct answer is D) Ventricular hypertrophy.

Acute unstable angina, most often caused by atherosclerosis, results from an imbalance in the ability to supply the myocardium with sufficient oxygen to meet its metabolic demands.

Causes of unstable angina include vasoconstriction, nonocclusive thrombus and inflammation or infection.

Question 6

A woman who is in her sixth day after childbirth is reporting having a strong and unpleasant odor coming from her vaginal discharge, as well as a higher than usual body temperature.

What would be your approach in managing her?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

All of the above. The correct answer is D) All of the above.

Managing a woman who is experiencing a strong and unpleasant odor from her vaginal discharge, as well as a higher than usual body temperature after childbirth requires a comprehensive approach. All of the options provided in the correct answer are necessary for addressing the situation effectively. Include the following approaches: Isolating the patient to prevent the spread of infection; Ensuring adequate intake of fluids and calories to; Support the body's healing process; Correcting any anemic condition that may be present; Lowering the patient's temperature if it is elevated; Administering appropriate antibiotics to treat the infection; Using paracetamol as an antipyretic to reduce fever.

Question 7

Of the following, which antibiotic is typically used to treat the patient that has been diagnosed with Lyme disease?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Doxycycline. The correct answer is D) Doxycycline.

Doxycycline would be considered the typical antibiotic that is used to treat the patient with Lyme disease. A normal dosage might be considered: 100 mg PO BID x 21 days.

Question 8

Which of the following scenarios reflects the greatest need for mechanical ventilation?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

An alert and oriented patient who is slightly diaphoretic and is having difficulty breathing.. The correct answer is C) An alert and oriented patient who is slightly diaphoretic and is having difficulty breathing.

The scenario that reflects the greatest need for mechanical ventilation is the patient who is having difficulty breathing. Mechanical ventilation is appropriate when the patient’s ability to oxygenate and exchange carbon dioxide is impaired.

Question 9

Of the following, what is the target dosage for an adult patient on Norpramin (desipramine)?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

75 - 300 mg qd. The correct answer is D) 75 - 300 mg qd.

The following dosages are associated with:
Elavil (amitriptyline): 50 - 150 mg divided;
Norpramin (desipramine): 75 - 300 mg qd;
Tofranil (imipramine): 75 - 300 mg q hs;
Pamelor (nortriptyline): 75 - 150 mg qd or divided.

Question 10

You are treating a child with lead poisoning. As part of the education and follow-up for this family you would tell the parents which of the following?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Lead must be removed by a professional. The correct answer is A) Lead must be removed by a professional.

This is an accurate and appropriate statement. You should tell the parents to increase calcium and iron in the child’s diet and to consider buying a simple lead testing kit for paint and water that is available from most hardware stores. Most homes built before 1950 contain lead paint.

FNP Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

More FNP practice questions

Free practice here. Timed mocks when you are ready.