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Pharmacy Technician Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (1–10)

Pharmacy Technician practice questions and answers 2026. Tap an option to test yourself — you'll see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every question. Free, no login.

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  1. Q1A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. Which mechanism best explains why metformin is preferred as first-line therapy over sulfonylureas for most patients?

    • AMetformin blocks intestinal absorption of all dietary carbohydrates
    • BMetformin increases renal glucose excretion by inhibiting SGLT-2 transporters
    • CMetformin stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release more insulin
    • DMetformin decreases hepatic glucose production and does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain

    Metformin (Glucophage) works primarily by suppressing hepatic gluconeogenesis; it does not stimulate insulin secretion, so it carries minimal hypoglycemia risk and is weight-neutral, making it first-line per ADA guidelines.

  2. Q2A prescriber orders warfarin for a patient who is also taking fluconazole for a vaginal yeast infection. What is the expected clinical outcome and the mechanism responsible?

    • ANo clinically significant interaction; warfarin is not metabolized by hepatic enzymes
    • BDecreased anticoagulant effect; fluconazole induces CYP2C9, increasing warfarin metabolism
    • CIncreased anticoagulant effect; fluconazole inhibits CYP2C9, decreasing warfarin metabolism
    • DDecreased anticoagulant effect; fluconazole displaces warfarin from plasma proteins
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Increased anticoagulant effect; fluconazole inhibits CYP2C9, decreasing warfarin metabolism

    Fluconazole is a potent CYP2C9 inhibitor; since S-warfarin (the more active enantiomer) is primarily metabolized by CYP2C9, co-administration raises warfarin plasma levels and significantly increases bleeding risk.

  3. Q3Which of the following brand/generic pairs is correctly matched?

    • ANorvasc — metoprolol succinate
    • BLipitor — atorvastatin
    • CSynthroid — amlodipine
    • DZestril — losartan
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Lipitor — atorvastatin

    Lipitor is the brand name for atorvastatin, a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin); Norvasc is amlodipine, Synthroid is levothyroxine, and Zestril is lisinopril.

  4. Q4A patient receiving chemotherapy develops severe nausea. The oncologist prescribes ondansetron. To which pharmacological class does ondansetron belong?

    • ADopamine D2 receptor antagonist
    • BSerotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
    • CNeurokinin-1 (NK1) receptor antagonist
    • DHistamine H1 receptor antagonist
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

    Ondansetron (Zofran) is a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that blocks serotonin at vagal afferents in the gut and at the chemoreceptor trigger zone, making it highly effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

  5. Q5A pharmacy receives a prescription for lithium carbonate 300 mg three times daily. Which parameter is most critical for a technician to flag for pharmacist counseling regarding patient monitoring?

    • ASerum lithium levels, renal function, and thyroid function tests due to a narrow therapeutic index
    • BWeekly complete blood count because lithium commonly causes agranulocytosis
    • CDaily blood glucose monitoring because lithium causes significant hyperglycemia
    • DFasting lipid panel every 6 months due to lithium-induced dyslipidemia
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Serum lithium levels, renal function, and thyroid function tests due to a narrow therapeutic index

    Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index (target serum level 0.6–1.2 mEq/L for maintenance), and toxicity correlates closely with renal clearance and sodium balance; routine serum level, BMP, and thyroid monitoring are mandatory.

  6. Q6Which of the following statements correctly describes the dosage form known as a transdermal patch?

    • AA semi-solid preparation applied to mucous membranes for local anti-inflammatory effect
    • BA pressurized canister that aerosolizes drug for direct deposition in the lower airways
    • CA solid dosage form that disintegrates rapidly on the tongue and is swallowed with saliva
    • DA reservoir or matrix system applied to the skin that delivers drug systemically through the dermal layers
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    ✓ Correct answer: D. A reservoir or matrix system applied to the skin that delivers drug systemically through the dermal layers

    Transdermal patches (e.g., fentanyl, nicotine, nitroglycerin) use reservoir or matrix technology to provide controlled systemic drug delivery through the skin, bypassing first-pass hepatic metabolism.

  7. Q7Amiodarone is prescribed for a patient who is also on simvastatin 40 mg daily. What is the most significant concern with this combination?

    • AAmiodarone reduces simvastatin efficacy by inducing CYP3A4
    • BAdditive QTc prolongation requiring ECG monitoring only
    • CRisk of serious myopathy or rhabdomyolysis because amiodarone inhibits CYP3A4, raising simvastatin levels
    • DAmiodarone chelates simvastatin in the GI tract, preventing absorption
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    ✓ Correct answer: C. Risk of serious myopathy or rhabdomyolysis because amiodarone inhibits CYP3A4, raising simvastatin levels

    Amiodarone inhibits CYP3A4, the primary enzyme metabolizing simvastatin; elevated simvastatin concentrations dramatically increase the risk of skeletal muscle toxicity including rhabdomyolysis, and the FDA limits simvastatin doses when used with amiodarone.

  8. Q8A patient asks a pharmacy technician about the generic name for Proventil HFA. Which answer is correct?

    • ASalmeterol
    • BAlbuterol
    • CFluticasone
    • DIpratropium
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    ✓ Correct answer: B. Albuterol

    Proventil HFA and Ventolin HFA are brand names for albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) used for acute bronchospasm relief in asthma and COPD.

  9. Q9A 68-year-old patient with a sulfa allergy is prescribed furosemide. Which counseling point is most pharmacologically relevant to this allergy history?

    • AFurosemide is a sulfonamide-based loop diuretic, so cross-reactivity with sulfa antibiotics is theoretically possible and should be discussed with the prescriber
    • BAll loop diuretics are absolutely contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies
    • CFurosemide should be replaced with a thiazide diuretic, which has no sulfonamide structure
    • DFurosemide does not contain any sulfonamide moiety and can be given safely without concern
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    ✓ Correct answer: A. Furosemide is a sulfonamide-based loop diuretic, so cross-reactivity with sulfa antibiotics is theoretically possible and should be discussed with the prescriber

    Furosemide contains a sulfonamide group; while the clinical significance of cross-reactivity is debated, the prescriber should be aware of the sulfa allergy so an informed benefit-risk decision can be made before dispensing.

  10. Q10A patient taking phenytoin for seizures is newly prescribed enteral tube feeds. Which pharmacokinetic interaction is the technician most likely to hear the pharmacist discussing?

    • AEnteral feeds increase phenytoin bioavailability by stimulating CYP2C9 induction
    • BPhenytoin chelates calcium in the feed, causing severe hypocalcemia
    • CEnteral feeds significantly decrease phenytoin absorption, requiring the feeds to be held around dose times and serum levels to be monitored
    • DEnteral feeds have no documented interaction with phenytoin
    Show answer

    ✓ Correct answer: C. Enteral feeds significantly decrease phenytoin absorption, requiring the feeds to be held around dose times and serum levels to be monitored

    Continuous enteral nutrition reduces phenytoin oral bioavailability substantially (mechanism not fully elucidated, possibly protein binding or adsorption to the feeding tube); standard practice is to hold feeds 1–2 hours before and after phenytoin doses and monitor drug levels closely.

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