Pharmacy Technician Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

Question 1

Which of the following drug classes works by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), and is commonly associated with a dry, persistent cough as a side effect?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

ACE inhibitors. ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril, enalapril) block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing aldosterone release; bradykinin accumulation in the lungs causes the class-specific dry cough in up to 15–20% of patients.

Question 2

A patient is prescribed testosterone cypionate 200 mg/mL injection. The dose ordered is 100 mg IM every two weeks. How many milliliters should be drawn up per dose?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

0.5 mL. Using the ratio: 100 mg ÷ 200 mg/mL = 0.5 mL; testosterone cypionate is an oil-based IM formulation and Schedule III controlled substance under the CSA.

Question 3

A prescriber adds rifampin to a patient's antibiotic regimen who is also on oral contraceptives. What counseling should the pharmacist provide regarding the oral contraceptive?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Rifampin is a potent CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein inducer that substantially reduces oral contraceptive efficacy; a backup contraceptive method is required. Rifampin is one of the most potent known CYP450 inducers (3A4, 2C9, and others) and dramatically accelerates metabolism of ethinyl estradiol and progestins, rendering oral contraceptives unreliable; backup non-hormonal contraception is mandatory during and for one month after rifampin therapy.

Question 4

Which of the following medications is classified as a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used specifically for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and is NOT a controlled substance?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Atomoxetine (Strattera). Atomoxetine (Strattera) selectively inhibits presynaptic norepinephrine reuptake and is FDA-approved for ADHD but is not a controlled substance, unlike the stimulant options listed, which are DEA Schedule II.

Question 5

A pharmacy technician is processing a prescription for digoxin 0.125 mg daily. The patient also picks up clarithromycin for a respiratory infection. Which interaction mechanism is most clinically significant here?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Clarithromycin inhibits P-glycoprotein and CYP3A4, reducing digoxin clearance and raising serum digoxin levels toward toxicity. Digoxin is a P-glycoprotein substrate; clarithromycin inhibits P-gp-mediated intestinal and renal digoxin efflux, raising digoxin serum concentrations and increasing the risk of toxicity (bradycardia, heart block, nausea, visual disturbances) in a drug with a very narrow therapeutic index.

Question 6

A patient with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 28 mL/min/1.73 m²) presents a prescription for metformin 1000 mg twice daily. What is the appropriate pharmacy action?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Flag for pharmacist review because metformin is contraindicated when eGFR falls below 30 mL/min/1.73 m² due to lactic acidosis risk. FDA labeling contraindicates metformin initiation when eGFR is below 30 mL/min/1.73 m² and recommends discontinuation if it falls below 30 during therapy, because reduced renal clearance of metformin increases lactic acidosis risk; the pharmacist must intervene before dispensing.

Question 7

A pharmacist receives a prescription for testosterone cypionate 200 mg/mL injection. The patient has no refills remaining and calls asking the pharmacist to verbally authorize an emergency refill. Under federal DEA regulations, which statement is correct?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Schedule III controlled substances may be refilled up to five times in six months, but an oral emergency supply is not a recognized mechanism.. Schedule III and IV controlled substances may be refilled up to five times within six months of the issue date per DEA regulations, but there is no emergency oral refill provision for these schedules — the refill authority is inherent in the original prescription, not dispensed via a separate emergency mechanism.

Question 8

A DEA registrant pharmacy discovers that 48 tablets of hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg are missing from inventory after a quarterly count. Which DEA form must be submitted, and within what timeframe?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

DEA Form 106, as soon as possible upon discovery, with a copy to the local DEA Diversion field office and local law enforcement.. DEA Form 106 (Report of Theft or Significant Loss of Controlled Substances) must be filed as soon as possible after a significant loss is discovered, with copies submitted to the local DEA Diversion field office and local law enforcement; DEA Form 41 is used for destruction, and DEA Form 222 is for ordering Schedule I and II substances.

Question 9

Which of the following controlled substances is classified as Schedule I by the DEA?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

Heroin. Heroin (diacetylmorphine) has no accepted medical use in the United States and a high potential for abuse, placing it in Schedule I; buprenorphine is Schedule III, ketamine is Schedule III, and tramadol is Schedule IV.

Question 10

A long-term care facility (LCF) requests an emergency oral Schedule II prescription for a hospice patient who has run out of morphine sulfate extended-release tablets. Under DEA regulations, which condition is NOT required for this emergency dispensing?

TheoryPractice · Accepted Answer

The prescriber must have an existing patient-prescriber relationship documented in the pharmacy's records before the emergency call.. Federal DEA regulations for emergency Schedule II dispensing require limiting quantity to the emergency period, mandate a follow-up written prescription within 7 days, and require the 'Authorization for Emergency Dispensing' notation, but they do NOT require a pre-existing documented patient-prescriber relationship on file at the pharmacy.

Pharmacy Technician Exam Questions & Answers 2026 (11–20)

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